Chany
Uncertain Absurdist
I don't believe the only function of marriage is having children. I've never been taught that. But it is normally a very important part of marriage, and certainly one of the chief purposes of marriage, and the specific purpose of sex.
I don't see anything wrong with trying to avoid pregnancy for a couple years, if there is a good reason.
The thing is that a moral means--as opposed to an immoral means--of doing so must be chosen.
As I understand it, you are saying that the only possible argument for saying that there is a moral difference between using a condom and abstaining during the fertile period is the difference between unnatural and natural, and you are further saying that this difference is not morally significant.
I don't see that the only difference is between natural and unnatural, in the sense you mean.
I don't see a moral equivalence between not having sex during the fertile period and using a condom.
I think the difference between the two is that using a condom separates sex from its specific purpose, which is procreation.
Not having sex during the fertile period doesn't separate sex from its specific purpose. It simply respects the fact that having sex during that time would be imprudent.
Again I go back to the example of the two men who want to make money to live on: one chooses to work, the other to rob a bank.
They have the same intention (in a sense), but the means chosen by the first is moral, the means chosen by the second is immoral
Which is, again, the naturalistic fallacy. Just because sex serves as a biological function that births children does not mean sex must fulfill that particular function in order to be moral.
Again, if the function of sex is to bear children, then NFP is immoral to use to avoid having children. You are specifically picking the days when pregnancy will not occur so you can have sex without fulfilling the function of sex: having children.
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