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Who really cares what the ECF's had to say?

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Anglian

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Dear Beamishboy,

In making reference to the Protoevangelion I was not allocating it the same significance as the canonical books, but trying to illustrate how, when the Bible does not give us a definitive answer, we look to the other parts of Holy Tradition for help; and even then we do not always get a definitive answer.

The Catholic tradition derives from St. Jerome, whereas the Orthodox one is more in the Epiphanian tradition; the former attributes virginity to St. Joseph too, where the latter sees him as the father of the other children. From pretty wide reading on this topic, my only conclusion is that there is no consensus, and that people tend to come down where their own tradition has been.

One of the problems in your discussion with Thekla is that we have no explained to you that there is not necessarily a single 'Orthodox position' on some matters. The Orthodox Church tends towards an apophatic approach to theological matters: defining things, as in the manner of the Creed, by what they are not, as much as by what they are; it is also happy to maintain a variety of positions on matters not concerning our salvation - of which it holds there are bound be to be great number.

The NT brings us news of our salvation through Christ; on other matters it touches where it touches. The Greek words used can mean that St. Joseph and St. Mary were married, or it can mean they were betrothed for life; common sense might suggest they got married; common sense might suggest that if the tradition that St. Mary was bound by a vow of perpetual virginity, they did not. The problem is that there is no definitive evidence for these things in Scripture itself.

This is one of those areas where one sees the difference between the Catholic and Orthodox traditions. The former, with their Magisterium has a definitive answer for most of the questions one comes up with; this is, to those used to the Orthodox way, another manifestation of the Western scholastic tradition which we also see in the Protestant tendency to seek precise definitions on a Sola Scriptura basis. The Eastern tradition has been not to seek to define too closely where it is felt the evidence does not allow; it has also been to allow Churches and individuals to hold their own views on such matters.

There is no Orthodox equivalent of the Pope and the Magisterium, neither is there an equivalent of Sola Scriptura. We see the Scriptures as part of Holy Tradition, and we use the various parts to ensure an orthodox position on those things which matter; on other things, every Church remains free to hold what it wishes. People being what they are (which is why we all stand in need of redemption) we will all take up positions defending either the position as we understand it that our Church takes up - or, if we have no Church, the one our study of these things leads us towards.

You will find Orthodox Christians taking up a variety of positions on the question of whether there was a marriage or not; you will find all Orthodox of one opinion on the question of St. Mary's virginity, even as you will find they all agree that she was the Theotokos; both theses last positions are based upon a reading of Scripture in the Fathers as confirmed through the Councils and represented in the Liturgy.

In peace,

Anglian
 
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Montalban

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Now how this relates to the topic???

It doesn't. But Beamishboy prefers to try to address that because distraction is another in his armoury.

Whilst he's accusing Thekla of ignoring his posts, he's happy doing that to mine. With mine he claims I'm being insulting, when in fact I'm simply pointing out that he's doing just that; accusing others of what he accuses them of. It also adds to avoiding what I and others write.
 
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Montalban

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In support of Holy Tradition

Suppose that for some reason the Church were to be bereft of all her liturgical books, of the Old and New Testaments, the works of the Holy Fathers—what would happen? Sacred Tradition would restore the Scriptures, not word for word, perhaps—the verbal form might be different but in essence the new Scriptures would be the expression of that same 'faith which was once delivered unto the saints.' They would be the expression of the one and only Holy Spirit continuously active in the Church, her foundation and her very substance... Archimandrite Sophrony, The Monk of Mount Athos: Staretz Silouan (1866-1938), Tr. Rosemary Edmonds. Crestwood. N.Y., 1973, p. 55.

This is because Tradition brought us the Gospels once before.
 
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simonthezealot

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Rubbish. Your quote from Ambrose leaves out the context it's about jests.

Further, it's taken you long enough to even respond to my rebuttal of your out-of-context sound-bites.
Montalban,
How is POSTING links NOT giving a full context?

I prefer to deal with a more advanced intellectual apologetics than what I get from you with your personal jabs,So excuse me if I am slow to respond but I answer those whom speak with respect first.
 
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simonthezealot

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I heard this line somewhere before....
Philothei I am just saying a person who takes to attacking others of different beliefs personally as opposed to debating the topic is NOT really worthy of a quick response...Read back at his posts, there is NO shortage of that.
 
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Philothei

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Let me ask you something though Zealot before you go... Why you find it that the Fathers would not want us to "read the Bible?" after all that is why the compiled it and radified it... To me it is logical they would "promote" people to read it... But in order to "chose" the books I am sure they were reading all other books too tha tthey thought were of lesser importance. Even if they encouraged people to read "the Bible" does not make them "sola scriptura" since they also said that the saint's lives were important, the liturgical hymns were important and were chanted and are "NOT" part of Sola Scriptura....
So, the person that does"sola scriptura" is in its own right a "little Pope" who interprets the Bible according to his own infallabilty...While in The Church we interpret it through the eyes of the Holy Tradition.
 
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simonthezealot

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Let me ask you something though Zealot before you go... Why you find it that the Fathers would not want us to "read the Bible?" after all that is why the compiled it and radified it... To me it is logical they would "promote" people to read it... But in order to "chose" the books I am sure they were reading all other books too tha tthey thought were of lesser importance. Even if they encouraged people to read "the Bible" does not make them "sola scriptura" since they also said that the saint's lives were important, the liturgical hymns were important and were chanted and are "NOT" part of Sola Scriptura....
So, the person that does"sola scriptura" is in its own right a "little Pope" who interprets the Bible according to his own infallabilty...While in The Church we interpret it through the eyes of the Holy Tradition.

They would want you to read Philothei, and the whole point I was making is that many fathers pre-canon put their full weight of teaching firmly based from scripture as well as the traditions FROM those scriptures.

But you say your church interprets scripture through tradition yet a council in 754 forbid images then in 787 a ecumenical councel reinstated it.
So tell me how much more accurate tradition is than each individual being led by the HS to all truth?
 
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Philothei

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They would want you to read Philothei, and the whole point I was making is that many fathers pre-canon put their full weight of teaching firmly based from scripture as well as the traditions FROM those scriptures.

But you say your church interprets scripture through tradition yet a council in 754 forbid images then in 787 a ecumenical councel reinstated it.
So tell me how much more accurate tradition is than each individual being led by the HS to all truth?


Pre-canon fathers did not ask people to read the "Bible" because there was no canon of the Bible... They were reading all the writtings including the Deurocanonical...i.e. the Sheppard of Hermas. Pretty much they relied in Oral traditions because there were not many copies of anything... Your statement was wrong since again there was no Bible before the canon....


The councils are radified by later councils always... re-evaluating the canons of the church...so thus the latest would validate the rest... There is no conflict here... We also have local councils that radify local canons that serve a certain community, also the Ecumenical councils were pronounced Ecumenical after their commenced.

i.e. the Roberts' rule of order would be an example of how conciliarity works.

How much more accurate the Church is? Well, you figure it out... It is the conciliarity of the Church that moves the Church forward. It is based on its Apostolic Tradiition and its consequtive councils and it radifies doctrine as it moves on, as it sees it fit in response to issues at hand. The Holy Spirit is present in the whole Praxis of the Chruch guiding it. The example of the Holy Spirit be present in the Pentacost guiding the Apostles ....We had no one man show... It happened in the Acts all the time... actually three times... Pentecost, on the question of circumcision, after Paul recieves his commision from Christ to evangelize he goes to the Church and they lay hands on him...

We all see the conciliar nature of the Church in decision making invoking the Holy Spirit in order for certain acts to take place. The Holy Spirit is present and sanctifies....

So Holy Spirit comes to the "community" rather than an individual when it comes to important faith matters. We again are not "little popes"
 
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jamescarvin

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Thanks. I did a translation of both geneologies awhile back. Here is how Luke 3:23 looks in the greek and perhaps you can give a view on it?

LUKE 3:23 And He was, the Jesus, as-if years, thirty beginning being as supposed/lawlized/enomizeto <3543>, son of-Joseph of-the Eli.

Textus Rec.) Luke 3:23 kai autoV hn o ihsouV wsei etwn triakonta arcomenoV wn wV enomizeto uioV iwshf tou hli

The W-H is worded differently though:

W-H ) Luke 3:23 kai autoV hn ihsouV arcomenoV wsei etwn triakonta wn uioV wV enomizeto iwshf tou hli

3543. nomizo nom-id'-zo from 3551; properly, to do by law (usage), i.e. to accustom (passively, be usual); by extension, to deem or regard:-- suppose, thing, be wont
I am not a Greek scholar. I use interlinears like you. I do, however, appreciate the Lamsa translation, which is from the Peshitta, rather than from Greek. Lamsa's theory is that the Peshitta preceded the Greek and that the Gospels were all written in Galilean Aramaic. Use of the Peshitta was continued under Muslim domination while all other Christian books in Aramaic, Syriac and Arabic were burned because Islam held that the Gospels were Allah's holy books and that Jesus was a true prophet.

He provides a numer of examples of texts where the Peshitta must have preceded the Greek and holds that only the officials and very learned would have spoken any Greek and that Galilean fishermen would not have fit that category. There is much debate about whether this is so, but certainly when there are questions about the Greek usage, it helps settle questions to look at his translation.

Ephraim the Syrian was an Early Church Father (4th Century) who used the Peshitta and helped found the School of Nisibis, which after the treaty of Emperor of Jovian was exiled to Edessa. Bar-Hebraeus was an erudite 12th Century bishop and historian from Edessa who along with many others are largely ignored in the West but we do possess some of their writings so that anyone interested in getting the whole picture and searching for the truth can at least have these resources. Edessa in Syria became the cultural center for the Aramaic speaking Christian community as well as other communities, including the gnostics and mystery religions and Jews. All of which is to say that some care may have taken place to preserve the actual words of the original Gospel writers and that some continuity exists through these links to the past.

Lamsa, translating in 1931, had Syriac as a primary language as do many Lebanese and Syrian Christians of today, who continue to use the Peshitta. My primary language is English so I am dependent on him and others to get my translation of the Peshitta.

So you've got supposed/lawlized/enomizeto <3543> and what I am suggesting is that there is a strong possibility, seeing some continuity through these Eastern Fathers, that this word was the Greek translation of the Peshitta, which had actually said "and he was supposed to be the son of Joseph." This fact, it seems would indicate that the community certainly viewed them as having had a fully consummated marriage, whether or not this was actually the case. So if, as was the Jewish custom, there were several stages from betrothal to consummation, outwardly anyway, there seems sufficient evidence that they were legally married.

I'm not a Greek expert but you seem to be right that "nomos" refers to law. But I doubt that the same connection exists in the Aramaic, where we simply have "supposed." This word seems to indicate and highlight that there was a difference between what was actual and what was supposed. When Eusebius of Caesaria, a speaker of Greek, points to the difference he is referring specifically to the fact that the two genealogies differ. He respects the inerrancy of the Gospels, inferring that Matthew has the accurate genealogy, while Luke has a legal account.

Many maintain that Matthew wrote his Gospel in Hebrew. Eusebius held this opinion. But he also knew that Luke was born in Antioch. Eusebius (Hist. Eccl. III, iv, 6) has: Loukas de to men genos on ton ap Antiocheias. Antioch was a cosmopolitan town where both languages may have been spoken but Syriac was still the local and primary dialect. Lamsa points out that many Syrians took Greek names to appear Greek under Greek domination to keep themselves from harm's way. So directing his Gospel to a Theophilous does not necessarily mean Greek was his original language in either Luke or Acts.

But Eusebius provides much more detail on this very old controversy and has no politics to play in providing his account beyond his love for truth and history, however accurate he may have been. So he titles chapter seven of book 1 of his Church History - "The Alleged Discrepancy in the Gospels in regard to the Genealogy of Christ" and he proceeds to explain the difference between legal and blood descendancy, pointing to the Hebrew law which provides that in the absence of a child, the brother must live up to his responsibility to bear children for a widow.

I will close by providing this chapter in its entirety and point out that this early father, points to an early father previous to himself as an authority, and that at the same time makes this lengthy explanation with the purpose of demonstrating the accuracy of the Gospels. So to answer the question "who cares what the ECFs had to say" one answer is that the fundamentalists should. Here is the chapter …

Chapter 7. The Alleged Discrepancy in the Gospels in regard to the Genealogy of Christ.

1. Matthew and Luke in their gospels have given us the genealogy of Christ differently, and many suppose that they are at variance with one another. Since as a consequence every believer, in ignorance of the truth, has been zealous to invent some explanation which shall harmonize the two passages, permit us to subjoin the account of the matter which has come down to us, and which is given by Africanus, who was mentioned by us just above, in his epistle to Aristides, where he discusses the harmony of the gospel genealogies. After refuting the opinions of others as forced and deceptive, he give the account which he had received from tradition in these words:
2. For whereas the names of the generations were reckoned in Israel either according to nature or according to law—according to nature by the succession of legitimate offspring, and according to law whenever another raised up a child to the name of a brother dying childless; for because a clear hope of resurrection was not yet given they had a representation of the future promise by a kind of mortal resurrection, in order that the name of the one deceased might be perpetuated—
3. whereas then some of those who are inserted in this genealogical table succeeded by natural descent, the son to the father, while others, though born of one father, were ascribed by name to another, mention was made of both of those who were progenitors in fact and of those who were so only in name.
4. Thus neither of the gospels is in error, for one reckons by nature, the other by law. For the line of descent from Solomon and that from Nathan were so involved, the one with the other, by the raising up of children to the childless and by second marriages, that the same persons are justly considered to belong at one time to one, at another time to another; that is, at one time to the reputed fathers, at another to the actual fathers. So that both these accounts are strictly true and come down to Joseph with considerable intricacy indeed, yet quite accurately.
5. But in order that what I have said may be made clear I shall explain the interchange of the generations. If we reckon the generations from David through Solomon, the third from the end is found to be Matthan, who begat Jacob the father of Joseph. But if, with Luke, we reckon them from Nathan the son of David, in like manner the third from the end is Melchi, whose son Eli was the father of Joseph. For Joseph was the son of Eli, the son of Melchi.
6. Joseph therefore being the object proposed to us, it must be shown how it is that each is recorded to be his father, both Jacob, who derived his descent from Solomon, and Eli, who derived his from Nathan; first how it is that these two, Jacob and Eli, were brothers, and then how it is that their fathers, Matthan and Melchi, although of different families, are declared to be grandfathers of Joseph.
7. Matthan and Melchi having married in succession the same woman, begat children who were uterine brothers, for the law did not prohibit a widow, whether such by divorce or by the death of her husband, from marrying another.
8. By Estha then (for this was the woman's name according to tradition) Matthan, a descendant of Solomon, first begat Jacob. And when Matthan was dead, Melchi, who traced his descent back to Nathan, being of the same tribe but of another family, married her as before said, and begat a son Eli.
9. Thus we shall find the two, Jacob and Eli, although belonging to different families, yet brethren by the same mother. Of these the one, Jacob, when his brother Eli had died childless, took the latter's wife and begat by her a son Joseph, his own son by nature and in accordance with reason. Wherefore also it is written: 'Jacob begat Joseph.' Matthew 1:6 But according to law he was the son of Eli, for Jacob, being the brother of the latter, raised up seed to him.
10. Hence the genealogy traced through him will not be rendered void, which the evangelist Matthew in his enumeration gives thus: 'Jacob begat Joseph.' But Luke, on the other hand, says: 'Who was the son, as was supposed' (for this he also adds), 'of Joseph, the son of Eli, the son of Melchi'; for he could not more clearly express the generation according to law. And the expression 'he begat' he has omitted in his genealogical table up to the end, tracing the genealogy back to Adam the son of God. This interpretation is neither incapable of proof nor is it an idle conjecture.
11. For the relatives of our Lord according to the flesh, whether with the desire of boasting or simply wishing to state the fact, in either case truly, have handed down the following account: Some Idumean robbers, having attacked Ascalon, a city of Palestine, carried away from a temple of Apollo which stood near the walls, in addition to other booty, Antipater, son of a certain temple slave named Herod. And since the priest was not able to pay the ransom for his son, Antipater was brought up in the customs of the Idumeans, and afterward was befriended by Hyrcanus, the high priest of the Jews.
12. And having been sent by Hyrcanus on an embassy to Pompey, and having restored to him the kingdom which had been invaded by his brother Aristobulus, he had the good fortune to be named procurator of Palestine. But Antipater having been slain by those who were envious of his great good fortune was succeeded by his son Herod, who was afterward, by a decree of the senate, made King of the Jews under Antony and Augustus. His sons were Herod and the other tetrarchs. These accounts agree also with those of the Greeks.
13. But as there had been kept in the archives up to that time the genealogies of the Hebrews as well as of those who traced their lineage back to proselytes, such as Achior the Ammonite and Ruth the Moabitess, and to those who were mingled with the Israelites and came out of Egypt with them, Herod, inasmuch as the lineage of the Israelites contributed nothing to his advantage, and since he was goaded with the consciousness of his own ignoble extraction, burned all the genealogical records, thinking that he might appear of noble origin if no one else were able, from the public registers, to trace back his lineage to the patriarchs or proselytes and to those mingled with them, who were called Georae.
14. A few of the careful, however, having obtained private records of their own, either by remembering the names or by getting them in some other way from the registers, pride themselves on preserving the memory of their noble extraction. Among these are those already mentioned, called Desposyni, on account of their connection with the family of the Saviour. Coming from Nazara and Cochaba, villages of Judea, into other parts of the world, they drew the aforesaid genealogy from memory and from the book of daily records as faithfully as possible.
15. Whether then the case stand thus or not no one could find a clearer explanation, according to my own opinion and that of every candid person. And let this suffice us, for, although we can urge no testimony in its support, we have nothing better or truer to offer. In any case the Gospel states the truth. And at the end of the same epistle he adds these words: Matthan, who was descended from Solomon, begat Jacob. And when Matthan was dead, Melchi, who was descended from Nathan begat Eli by the same woman. Eli and Jacob were thus uterine brothers. Eli having died childless, Jacob raised up seed to him, begetting Joseph, his own son by nature, but by law the son of Eli. Thus Joseph was the son of both.
17. Thus far Africanus. And the lineage of Joseph being thus traced, Mary also is virtually shown to be of the same tribe with him, since, according to the law of Moses, intermarriages between different tribes were not permitted. For the command is to marry one of the same family and lineage, so that the inheritance may not pass from tribe to tribe. This may suffice here.


THOUGHTS ON HOUSEKEEPING
In my opinion, discussions about Mary and the early fathers are intertwined and not off-topic because they serve as an example of why we should care about the early fathers. We have seen in answer to this question…

- present evidence
- provide continuity
- possess authority

So to the moderators I would suggest leaving pertinent posts alone, while taking some of the personal attacks off. And to those who wish to criticize others for their inconsistency of argument I suggest you do start using private message features, as it is a bit frustrating to only be able to send replies to substantive posts several pages away.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Thoughts on Housekeeping

In my opinion, discussions about Mary and the early fathers are intertwined and not off-topic because they serve as an example of why we should care about the early fathers. We have seen in answer to this question&#8230;

- present evidence
- provide continuity
- possess authority

So to the moderators I would suggest leaving pertinent posts alone, while taking some of the personal attacks off. And to those who wish to criticize others for their inconsistency of argument I suggest you do start using private message features, as it is a bit frustrating to only be able to send replies to substantive posts several pages away.
Greetings. While I am neutral concerning the way mary is viewed by the early ECFs, isn't it also true that it wasn't until the Canon was put together that most Christians had more access to them?
As far as translations, I admit they are "horrible" but I read the NIV Chronological just fine though it is not an accurate translation.

Here is an interesting discussion going on between Messianics and Orthodox Jews and again, if the Bible was translated more accurately, I believe both the Jews and Muslims would view our NT/NC as the True Word of YHWH and His Christ Jesus. Thoughts?

http://christianforums.com/showthread.php?t=7260697
How does a Jew begin to believe in a triune God?

Shalom. Aren't Messianics considered "pseudo-Jews"?
As far as proselyzing, what do you make of what JESUS exclaiming to the Judean rulers in Matt 23?

The word for "dry" is used in both Haggai 2:6 and Luke 23:31 and I view those as the ones in the GNT book of Revelation. Thoughts?


http://www.scripture4all.org/

Haggai 2:6 That thus He says, YHWH of Hosts: Yet one little, she, and I am quaking the heavens and the land, and the sea, and the Dry/03004 yabbashah, 7 And I quake All of the nations, and they come, desired of all of the nations. And I fill the House, the-this, honour says YHWH of Hosts.

Matt 23:15 "Woe to ye scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! that ye are going-about the Sea and the Dry/xhran <3584> to make one proselyte, and whenever he may be becoming/genhtai <1096> (5638), ye are making him a son of geennhV <1067> twofold-more of-ye. [Haggai 2:6/Luke 23:31]

Luke 23:31 That if in the moist wood/xulw <3586> these-things they are doing, in the Dry/xhrw <3584>, what may be becoming/genhtai <1096> (5638)?
 
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simonthezealot

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Your statement was wrong since again there was no Bible before the canon....
Christians have always had a written guide!
An argument often used is that Sola Scripture cannot be true because the early church only had oral tradition until it was written down, then canonized at a later date as the New Testament. God would not have left his church without something to follow.

The early Church always had scripture. We call it the Old Testament.

The writers of the New Testament, according to one source, directly quote the Old Testament over 600 times and refer to it as many as 4,000 times.

Jesus never removes the authority of the Old Testament.
EVEN the Catholic Church in the Catechism affirms the authority of the Old Testament even for the church prior to the New Testament being written.

Quote:
The Old Testament

121 The Old Testament is an indispensable part of Sacred Scripture. Its books are divinely inspired and retain a permanent value, for the Old Covenant has never been revoked.

122 Indeed, "the economy of the Old Testament was deliberately so oriented that it should prepare for and declare in prophecy the coming of Christ, redeemer of all men."93 "Even though they contain matters imperfect and provisional,"94 the books of the Old Testament bear witness to the whole divine pedagogy of God's saving love: these writings "are a storehouse of sublime teaching on God and of sound wisdom on human life, as well as a wonderful treasury of prayers; in them, too, the mystery of our salvation is present in a hidden way."95

123 Christians venerate the Old Testament as true Word of God. The Church has always vigorously opposed the idea of rejecting the Old Testament under the pretext that the New has rendered it void (Marcionism).


The Catholic Church for example clearly teaches that the Old Testament HAS always been inspired. That includes the year 33 to whenever the first gospel was written. The early church has ALWAYS had a written guide, even before the first word of the New Testament was written.


Quote:
2Ti 3:16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.


I know some wavering Protestants will wonder if that is what the early church truely did, follow the Old Testament.

Read 1st Clement and the Epistle of Barnabas. Both works of early Christians who do almost nothing in those letters EXCEPT appeal to the Old Testament to support their beliefs in Christ.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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I know some wavering Protestants will wonder if that is what the early church truely did, follow the Old Testament.

Read 1st Clement and the Epistle of Barnabas. Both works of early Christians who do almost nothing in those letters EXCEPT appeal to the Old Testament to support their beliefs in Christ.
Greetings. Is that the "clement" supposedly mentioned in Phil 4:3? I have a thread on the TAW board concerning that:

http://christianforums.com/showthread.php?t=7265052&page=4
The Greek word for Clement in Phil 4:3

Phili 4:3 Yea I am asking also thee together-yoke! genuine! be thou helping them who-any in the Well-Message together-complete to-me with also/and clement/klhmentoV <2815> and of the rests together-workers of me of whom the names in scroll of life.
 
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simonthezealot

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The councils are radified by later councils always... re-evaluating the canons of the church...so thus the latest would validate the rest... There is no conflict here...
Radify? is that a fancy name for a straight up contradiction...One interpretted black as black and the other radified it to say black is yellow...
No conflict here? you say that with a straight face?^_^^_^
What's gonna get radified next?
 
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LittleLambofJesus

Hebrews 2:14.... Pesky Devil, git!
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Radify? is that a fancy name for a straight up contradiction...One interpretted black as black and the other radified it to say black is yellow...
No conflict here? you say that with a straight face?^_^^_^
What's gonna get radified next?
I can get along fine with just the OT Scriptures :D

Isaiah 28:18 And-shall-be-atoned/03722 kaphar, Covenant-of-you with Death, and-seer with Sh@'owl ,

Daniel 9:24 Sevens, seventy, he is segregated on thy people, and on City of holiness of thee, to shut-up/detain of the transgression, and to [seal-of] finish-of sealing up sin/s, and to atone/cover-over/03722 kaphar of iniquity, and to bring of righteousness of eons, and to seal-up of vision and prophet, and to annoint of holiness of-holiness

Hosea 13:14 "From hand of sh@'owl I shall release/rescue them, from Death I shall Redeem them. Where plagues of you Death?. Where sting of you sh@'owl? Regret shall be hidden from My eyes." [1 Corin 15:55].
 
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simonthezealot

have you not read,what God has spoken unto you?
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So Holy Spirit comes to the "community" rather than an individual when it comes to important faith matters. We again are not "little popes"
Yeah and yet the Holy Spirit apparently needed to be radified...Sheesh Philothei...Is this not clear to you? You should be little popes...
 
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simonthezealot

have you not read,what God has spoken unto you?
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Greetings. Is that the "clement" supposedly mentioned in Phil 4:3? I have a thread on the TAW board concerning that:
Yes one and the same...The FIRST presbyterian!
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Yes one and the same...The FIRST presbyterian![/quote]:p Doesn't that come from the greek word for Elders?

Revelation 4:4 And round about the throne were four and twenty thrones: and upon the thrones I saw four and twenty elders/presbuterouV <4245> sitting, clothed in white raiment; and they had on their heads crowns of gold.
 
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Philothei

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Christians have always had a written guide!


really? they all had parchments??? Show me that the first century Christians were reading the Old Testament.... I would be curious to see that....


An argument often used is that Sola Scripture cannot be true because the early church only had oral tradition until it was written down, then canonized at a later date as the New Testament. God would not have left his church without something to follow.


Something to follow... but where in the NT do the Apostles say that Christians are to read the Old Testament? God gave us the Apostles to continue the message of Christ...Furthermore the Apostles would have ONLY write the gospels and not ORALLY preached the message... Like today we should not have "preachers" just replace it with the BIBLE... and everyone should be reading it... instead of evangelizing it ... that is spead the Good news ORALLY....Your argument is not valid based on the historicity of how the first Christian communities "spread the news" ....There were hardly any copies of anything written hardly.

The early Church always had scripture. We call it the Old Testament.

The writers of the New Testament, according to one source, directly quote the Old Testament over 600 times and refer to it as many as 4,000 times.

Scripture was used by the Rabbis and elders but not by common people. Just because the OT is quoted that does not prove that people were using it.. The fathers used the OT to estalbish the connection between the two covenants. That why it is quoted, it does not mean people were "using" the Old Testament.

Jesus never removes the authority of the Old Testament.
Jesus established the New Covenant with us. The Old Testament was fullfilled through Christ.
EVEN the Catholic Church in the Catechism affirms the authority of the Old Testament even for the church prior to the New Testament being written.

I am not RC.

Quote:
The Old Testament

121 The Old Testament is an indispensable part of Sacred Scripture. Its books are divinely inspired and retain a permanent value, for the Old Covenant has never been revoked.

122 Indeed, "the economy of the Old Testament was deliberately so oriented that it should prepare for and declare in prophecy the coming of Christ, redeemer of all men."93 "Even though they contain matters imperfect and provisional,"94 the books of the Old Testament bear witness to the whole divine pedagogy of God's saving love: these writings "are a storehouse of sublime teaching on God and of sound wisdom on human life, as well as a wonderful treasury of prayers; in them, too, the mystery of our salvation is present in a hidden way."95

123 Christians venerate the Old Testament as true Word of God. The Church has always vigorously opposed the idea of rejecting the Old Testament under the pretext that the New has rendered it void (Marcionism).


The Catholic Church for example clearly teaches that the Old Testament HAS always been inspired. That includes the year 33 to whenever the first gospel was written. The early church has ALWAYS had a written guide, even before the first word of the New Testament was written.


Quote:
2Ti 3:16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.


I know some wavering Protestants will wonder if that is what the early church truely did, follow the Old Testament.

Read 1st Clement and the Epistle of Barnabas. Both works of early Christians who do almost nothing in those letters EXCEPT appeal to the Old Testament to support their beliefs in Christ.
[/QUOTE]

We do not deny the benefit of one studying the Old Testament.. I do not know why you are arguing this point... rahter staying with the subject...

It was Paul that did not agree with circumcision as the practice in the Old Testament and the whole Judaising issue... Why you think the growing Church would want to "equate" itself with the teachings of the Old Testament... and not "seperate" itself from the Jews...is a puzzle to me..

furthermore... here is an example of "conflict" between the Torah and the universality of Christ's message... Then again the question if people would find "conflict" in reading the OT why would the Apostles would encourage it??? The New Testament was not "written" yet.... Your argument makes no sense... You are trying to prove there was "scripture" before scripture....yes it was... The question though is was it "only" scripture?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Council_of_Jerusalem
We live by the New Covenant of Jesus Christ not the Old. We accept the Old Testament as revelation from God and we see it ONLY in light of the incarnation. Christ is our guide not Moses. He fullfilled the Old Testament and the prophesy. That is how I see the Old Testament.

BTW you did not reply to my post but re-directed the conversation, just in case you did not notice.

Question" Did or did not the first Christians used the Deurocanonical writings?

Answer: they did

If you think they ONLY used the the Old Testament please substantiate.

 
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Philothei

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Radify? is that a fancy name for a straight up contradiction...One interpretted black as black and the other radified it to say black is yellow...
No conflict here? you say that with a straight face?^_^^_^
What's gonna get radified next?

Now who is trying to get points by making fun or someone's linguistic skills... Try to learn some Greek first...and then we will talk budy...:sorry:
 
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