You've done nothing to discredit my understanding of science.
Indeed. You discredit yourself more than I could ever attempt to.
You're emphasising a nuance of the definition to make a contrived and invalid point. In vitro is clearly meant to describe an artificially controlled environment. Abiogenesis did not initiate and sustain in a controlled environment.
This question is non-sensical. First, you are begging the question.
Second, the burden of evidence is on the person claiming the validity of materialistic abiogenesis. You apparently are the one who misunderstands the role of science. In science the offered hypothesis does not win by default. That is silly. I don't need to demonstrate anything to be honest. The researcher who is making the claim needs to demonstrate plausible evidence that the experiment does in fact have meaning and relevance to the OOL.
Since we both know that we are not talking about real life it is clear my use of the term homeostasis was not intended to convey biological homeostasis. The purpose of homeostasis in a biological organism is to protect a very complex set of reactions from the external environment. It is a form of control. This broader use of the term homeostasis is what is provided in all the RNA engineering experiments.
Dilution followed by an increased concentration says nothing, absolutely nothing, about the controlled conditions of the experiment. You baldly claim "no coddling" by saying the experiment produced more RNA? This is very strange reasoning. I doubt they would have published the paper had they not had an increase in RNA.
Thanks for clarifying your expressions: you are concerned that because the experimental conditions were "controlled" somehow, the experiment does not serve as a faithful representation of early abiogenetic conditions.
What you are forgetting is that "controlled"
is not an experimental variable that chemical reactions see. Chemical reactions run based on ambient temperature, reactant and catalyst concentrations, pH, and so forth. Whether those conditions are deliberately controlled by human agency or not has no effect on whether or not the reactions proceed.
For example, my room is maintained at about 25 degrees Celsius. This is a controlled temperature, carefully maintained with a thermostat (and a high utilities bill).
The temperature back in Malaysia is also 25 degrees on a rather cool day. This is entirely outside human control (unfortunately).
On the other hand, the temperature outside my room is about 13 degrees Celsius. This is also, unfortunately, entirely outside human control.
But the laser lab in which I spent the summer was also kept at about 13 degrees Celsius, and that was entirely controlled with a thermostat (and another high utilities bill, thankfully picked up by the magnanimous ANU).
But suppose I had a reaction that proceeded at 25 degrees Celsius, and not 13 degrees Celsius.
This reaction would run in my room (at a controlled 25 degrees C) and in Malaysia (at an
uncontrolled 25 degrees C).
This reaction would not run outside my room (at an
uncontrolled 13 degrees C) nor in my lab (at a controlled 13 degrees C).
You see? Whether or not experimental conditions are
controlled does not directly affect whether or not experimental conditions are
faithful to non-experimental conditions.
Now, of course, suppose the controller of an experiment had actually set his controlled conditions wrongly: then the experimental conditions certainly wouldn't be faithful to non-experimental conditions. But that isn't to be blamed on control
per se. My reaction above would fail in the controlled laser lab: but it would also fail in the uncontrolled conditions outside my room.
And back to the RNA experiment. The researchers reported performing the experiment under extreme dilution at moderate temperatures in aqueous solvation. Now, of course, those conditions were
chosen by the researchers. They were
controlled. But that doesn't make them
invalid per se. Most of the world's water indeed contains RNA at extreme dilution and moderate temperatures, and there is no
a priori reason to assume that that was not true of the early seas of this planet as well.
Unless, of course, you begin by
assuming that abiogenesis could not have happened, and then
concoct whatever reason you can find to "prove" your point.