Why did John object to baptizing Jesus? (Matt 3:13-15). John recognized Jesus' sinlessness! Whereas others came "confessing their sins", Jesus had none to confess! Historical sources say that He confessed the sins of all the world. Since He did not need this baptism for Himself, it must have been vicarious, ie., taken for others. Since He fulfilled "all righteousness" in this Old Testament type, persons attempting to repeat it cannot add any merit to their souls, nor enhance their standing before God. So, we believe that Jesus was there in the Jordan River vicariously baptized for us, quite similarly as He died on the cross for us. We need to see that whatsoever Jesus did vicariously, we should not follow nor attempt to duplicate. To do so would appear, not as devotion, but to indicate a lack of belief in His fulfillment of types and ordinances. That which Jesus did exemplary we must follow, eg., His loving all people, His being compassionate, His seeking first the kingdom of God, His loving the Father, and telling others the plan of salvation.
[FONT='Calibri','sans-serif']Jesus baptized none of His followers in water (John 4:2), and He gave no commandment for the use of water baptism. He did strongly emphasize the Baptism with the Holy Spirit! After His resurrection, He said to His disciples: "For John baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit" (Acts 1:5). In Ephesians, Chapter 4 verse 5, the apostle Paul says that there is one body, one Spirit, one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God. We believe that this one baptism is the baptism with the Holy Spirit. Some people have misinterpreted Jesus' statement in His great commission to mean water baptism when He says that we are to "preach the gospel to all people, baptizing them in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit" (Matt 28:19). There is no reference to water here but to the immersing of people into the teachings of the unity of the three persons of the Godhead.
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