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Featured What is the Day of the Lord?

Discussion in 'Eschatology - Endtimes & Prophecy Forum' started by Quasar92, Jul 6, 2017.

  1. ICONO'CLAST

    ICONO'CLAST Well-Known Member

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    Sabbath Rest by Sinclair Ferguson

    In speaking of this rest (3:18; 4:1, 3-6, 8) the author consistently used the same word for “rest” (katapausis). Suddenly, in speaking about the “rest” that remains for the people of God, he uses a different word (sabbatismos, used only here in the NT) meaning specifically a Sabbath rest. In the context of his teaching, this refers fundamentally to the “Sabbath rest” which is found in Christ (“Come … I will give you rest,”Matt. 11:28-30). Thus we are to “strive to enter that rest” (4:11).
     
  2. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Show me at any time in the history of Israel that they have held or owned the property between the Euphrates and the Nile rivers God prom,ised them in Gen.15:18-21.

    FYI, it is about 650 miles from the Euphrates river to Jerusalem alone. There is nothing to debate.


    Quasar92
     
  3. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    The Biblical reference to he Day of the Lord, always pertains to end times prophecy. Alluding to the conflicts during the times of Joshua have nothing whatever to do with end times.


    Quasar92
     
  4. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    What Israel's popultion is when the tribulation takes place has no bearing at all on the Scriptural prophecy by God, as to how many of them will be left after the conflagration has ended, as recorded below:

    Zech.13:8 "In the whole land,” declares the Lord,
    “two-thirds will be struck down and perish;
    yet one-third will be left in it."


    Quasar92
     
  5. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    There's nothing I need to show you.

    Joshua 21:43 declares that God kept His promise. You declare that He did not.

    You're right, there is nothing to debate.
     
  6. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Show me where I made any such remark. Either put what I say in proper quotes, or not at all. You have no argument attempting to insert the Scriptures pertaining to the Day of the Lord to that of the wars fought by Joshua on their way to Canaan, to establish the nation of Israel.

    Those events took place approximately 4,000 years ago. The OT Scriptures , together with the NT Scriptures pertaining to the Day of the Lord, are all prophecy! Do a search engine on it it yourself. You are confusing prophecy to history.


    Quasar92
     
  7. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    You're confusing the posts. Joshua 21:43 has nothing to do with the day of the Lord.

    Joshua 21:43 says:
    And the Lord gave unto Israel all the land which he sware to give unto their fathers; and they possessed it, and dwelt therein.

    You say:
    Show me at any time in the history of Israel that they have held or owned the property between the Euphrates and the Nile rivers God promised them in Gen.15:18-21.

    If the land that God gave Israel in Joshua 21:43 is not the land that He promised Abram in Genesis 15:18-21, then what land is Joshua 21:43 referring to?
     
  8. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    The Joshua 21:43 land is "all the land that was sware unto their (Israel's) fathers."

    The Genesis 15:18-21 land was "sware" unto Israel's father Abram/Abraham.

    The Genesis 15:18-21 land is therefore unquestionably included in the Joshua 21:43 land.
     
    Last edited: Jul 8, 2017
  9. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Your above argument goes nowhere in the obvious clear case of Israeli history. The promise of God in Gen.15:18-21 HAS NEVER yet been fulfilled. What you have posted in Scripture DOES NOT prove it was fulfilled by any stretch of the imagination. You need to do some geographical study and research on the boundaries of Israel, from their inception.


    Quasar92
     
  10. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Finally got it out of you.

    Joshua 21:43 declares that God fulfilled His promise. You declare that He did not.

    It's a clear choice between believing God or believing you.

    Easy choice for any true Bible believer.
     
  11. keras

    keras Writer of Bible prophecy studies.

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    Quasar92 said:
    The promise of God in Gen.15:18-21 HAS NEVER yet been fulfilled.

    JGR replied:
    Finally got it out of you.
    Joshua 21:43 declares that God fulfilled His promise. You declare that He did not.

    It's a clear choice between believing God or believing you.
    Easy choice for any true Bible believer Quote, JGR.

    I have to agree with Quasar on this. The ancient Israelites never did take over all the Land given to Abraham; from the Nile to the Euphrates. Plus they failed to evict the original inhabitants.
    What Joshua meant was that God had made it possible for them to take it all over, but we know from Judges 1, that they failed to do that .
    Your accusing comment is inappropriate and shows your failure to read all the scriptures on this issue.
     
  12. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    If plain scripture contradicts one's preconceptions, then it's obviously not scripture that's in error.
     
  13. BABerean2

    BABerean2 Newbie Supporter

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    How much land did Solomon control?

    .
     
  14. keras

    keras Writer of Bible prophecy studies.

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    But you choose to ignore the scriptures in Judges 1, that plainly state that the ancient Israelites never did have full control of all the holy Land.
    There is an anomaly here, and Joshua 21:43: read in a modern translation, does say that the Lord gave them the Land and delivered their enemies up to them, but not that Israel actually completed their task. They didn't, but the new Israel, Isaiah 62:1-5, that will occupy ALL of the holy Land, soon after the Lord has cleared and cleansed it on His Day of wrath, WILL.
    Solomon's Kingdom didn't extend to the river Nile. It may have included Sinai, but Egypt has always kept the Nile.
     
  15. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Where ertr you the first t5wo times I told you that?


    Quasar92
     
  16. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Neither Solomon, David or any other monarch of Israel ever controlled the land from the euphrates river to the Nile river in all of their history. If you think that is in error, show me your geographical proof to the contrary.


    Quasar92
     
  17. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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  18. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    There is no task referenced in these verses that required Israel's completion. She was given all of the land that had been promised, and she defeated all of her enemies. As verse 45 perfectly summarizes, "There failed not ought of any good thing which the Lord had spoken unto the house of Israel; all came to pass."

    Joshua 21
    43 And the Lord gave unto Israel all the land which he sware to give unto their fathers; and they possessed it, and dwelt therein.

    44 And the Lord gave them rest round about, according to all that he sware unto their fathers: and there stood not a man of all their enemies before them; the Lord delivered all their enemies into their hand.

    45 There failed not ought of any good thing which the Lord had spoken unto the house of Israel; all came to pass.
     
  19. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    That Solomon ruled over the kings from the Euphrates to the Nile rivers is what the Scriptures say. However, Israel NEVER occupied it as part of their country yet. But they will when Jesus establishes His kingdom on earth.


    Quasar92
     
  20. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Rulership confers the right of occupancy. It is reasonable to believe that there were Israelites present and settled in those areas.

    But, as I predicted, there is a blanket refusal to accept the unambiguous declarations of Scripture.
     
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