I'm not being snarky. I'm just being critical.
In your post previous to that one you state:
Urinating on someone while drunk is STILL a chargeable offence.
If you urinate on someone, you are the "villain" in that story; whether you are drunk out of your mind or stone sober.
Are you agreeing now that perhaps this guy did do something wrong in urinating on this woman while presumably being drunk (according to behaviours and symptoms shown) and perhaps charges should be laid? Or are you suggesting that because he was intoxicated, he should not be charged for urinating on someone?