Was Adam a Hermaphrodite?

coffee4u

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Might I encourage you to read some jewish thought on this, they might have an insight or 2 (just a hunch) into Hebrew

With all due respect, I suggest you study doctrine some more.

Adam was a normal man and Eve was a normal women so that they could Be fruitful and multiply.

it's also why Jesus came as a man and is known as the second Adam.
And also why God's pronoun is He.

It's also why Jesus had a human mother and no earthly father because sin is passed down from the father, from the male to the offspring.

Also why is this posted to the science area??
 
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coffee4u

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You could also interpret any possible plurality as Adam being a representation of mankind, as some Christians do.

I could but I won't because I know the text is meant to be taken literally. One man sinned, one man's sin brought in death, one man's sin spread to all humanity.
Romans 5:12
Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned--


One perfect man had to be born and die to fix the issue the first man caused.
1 Corinthians 15:21-23
For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive.


In your studies when people are translating the Hebrew word to "Them" is it because it's a non gendered singular pronoun, or that it's a collective pronoun? (I'm not certain they are the same thing in Hebrew as they are in English).

The name Adam does mean humanity, most names have meanings and name meanings where very important to the Jewish people. Easu meant 'red skinned', methuselah's name meant 'death sent' or 'upon death' and many see his death being the prediction for the flood. People's names had meanings. Adam was the father of humanity and his name reflected that. Eve meant chavah, to breathe, or to give life.

Of course some people take that and claim this means Adam simply means all humans and wasn't a single man. Which doesn't line up with all the other verses on him. You need all the verses written about a person laid side by side so a full picture. Even people who don't believe scripture should be able to understand that I should think.

He seems unambiguously male in modern English Christian versions, but apparently it's less clear in context of original translations.

Some Jewish folklore has Adam and Lilith being created as one creature who were then split in two. But Lilith was rebellious and didn't want to be a wife, so God banished her and crafted Eve from Adam's rib.

I'm sure there are many unbiblical writings around, just as most nations have a creation and a flood story. They take something that really happened, pass it down by word of mouth, embellishing and changing it as they go until it becomes a myth or legend. They can make for interesting reading but they are not scripture and not God's breathed word. The fact that every nation has it's own creation story tells me that creation really happened; knowing God shows me which one was correct.
 
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mmksparbud

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Gen 1:27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. 28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply,...

You know about the whole "adam" and "adamah" pun, right?

A hebrew scholar could do a much better job, but here's the jist:

ADAM - אדם

ADAMAH (ground) - אדםה

[Bible]Genesis 2:7[/Bible]

It can also be read: And the LORD God formed ADAM out of the ADAMAH. Get the dual meaning?

---

Anyway, the point is a lot is lost in the translation, and looking at a word used both as mankind in general and a single individual in a poetic fashion for a biological description misses the point of the passage.

And just to be clear, you're aware of the whole Documentary Hypothesis thing and the Priestly Source of the multiple occurances of "be fruitful and mutilply" in Genesis?




27 and~he~will~SHAPE(V) (וַיִּבְרָא / wai'yiv'ra) Elohiym (אֱלֹהִים / e'lo'him) AT (אֶת / et) the~HUMAN (הָאָדָם / ha'a'dam) in~IMAGE~him (בְּצַלְמוֹ / bê'tsal'mo) in~IMAGE (בְּצֶלֶם / bê'tse'lem) Elohiym (אֱלֹהִים / e'lo'him) he~did~SHAPE(V) (בָּרָא / ba'ra) AT~him (אֹתוֹ / o'to) MALE (זָכָר / za'khar) and~FEMALE (וּנְקֵבָה / un'qey'vah) he~did~SHAPE(V) (בָּרָא / ba'ra) AT~them(m) (אֹתָם / o'tam)

RMT: and Elohiym shaped the human in his image, in the image of Elohiym he shaped him, male and female he shaped them,


Genesis 1 is written in chronological order. Gen 2 goes back and fills in the details. Adam and Eve are the only 2 humans with different DNA than us. They both were the epitome of what is male and female. Once they had children, their children inherited DNA from both parents and from then on--BOTH PARENTS HAVE CONTRIBUTED TO THE GENE POOL.

Did the term "THEM" escape you? Apparently it did. Them is multiple---more than one. Adam means human. The term man is used in the bible to include male and female. It is meant as inclusive of all humans. It is singular when the word "A" comes before it---"A MAN" MEANS ONE PARTICULAR MAN.
ARE Y0U ALSO OF THE FALSE OPINION THAT GEN 2 IS ALSO A DIFFERENT CREATION?
To come up with Adam is a hermaphrodite is to literally ignore the whole of the rest of the bible.
 
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AV1611VET

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It seems from a quick scan of readings including the Bible, Adam was a hermaphrodite.

What do you think?
I think you should scan slower.
 
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AV1611VET

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But how else could you get eve from adam?
God put Adam to sleep, took one of his ribs, and with it, made Eve.

Are you suggesting Adam could have been a hermaphrodite because Eve came into existence with one of his bones?

Using that logic, is the dust of the ground alive; since Adam was created from it?
 
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coffee4u

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But how else could you get eve from adam?

21 So the Lord God caused the man to fall into a deep sleep; and while he was sleeping, he took one of the man’s ribs and then closed up the place with flesh. 22 Then the Lord God made a woman from the rib he had taken out of the man, and he brought her to the man.

God could have just as easily made her from clay as he had made Adam (and the clay doesn't even have a gender) He took her from Adam to show Adam that they were one flesh in marriage, it had nothing to do with Adam's genes, genitals or hormones.

The fact that they were male and female is said more than once.
Mark 10
6 “But at the beginning of creation God ‘made them male and female.’ 7 ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, 8 and the two will become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two, but one flesh. 9 Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”
 
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coffee4u

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God put Adam to sleep, took one of his ribs, and with it, made Eve.

Are you suggesting Adam could have been a hermaphrodite because Eve came into existence with one of his bones?

Using that logic, is the dust of the ground alive; since Adam was created from it?

Nice to see you back posting and lol for having the same train of thought about the dirt.
 
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Ponderous Curmudgeon

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God put Adam to sleep, took one of his ribs, and with it, made Eve.

Are you suggesting Adam could have been a hermaphrodite because Eve came into existence with one of his bones?

Using that logic, is the dust of the ground alive; since Adam was created from it?
If you say so.
 
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ViaCrucis

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According to scripture Adam also translated "Them" interestingly enough, was created perfect so I can only assume the mechanics were also perfect.

I'm sure this has already been mentioned, I haven't gone through to see exactly yet; but in Genesis 1 it uses "Adam" in the generic sense, meaning human beings.

In Genesis 1 God creates humans, male and female.

Adam, as a specific individual, doesn't show up until Genesis chapter 2--and he's quite male.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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ViaCrucis

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You could also interpret any possible plurality as Adam being a representation of mankind, as some Christians do.

In your studies when people are translating the Hebrew word to "Them" is it because it's a non gendered singular pronoun, or that it's a collective pronoun? (I'm not certain they are the same thing in Hebrew as they are in English).

There aren't any pronouns, as such, in the Hebrew of Genesis 1:27; from what I understand Hebrew does have pronouns, but most often pronouns are assumed according to word construction. In the case of Genesis 1:27 it doesn't mention "he" or "them"--these are added in translation to help facilitate ease of reading for English readers.

In the Hebrew it simply states that God created human beings (adam) male (zakar) and female (neqeba).

So it's something like "And so God created humans in [His] image, in the image of God [He] created [them], male and female [He] created [them]"

He seems unambiguously male in modern English Christian versions, but apparently it's less clear in context of original translations.

Some Jewish folklore has Adam and Lilith being created as one creature who were then split in two. But Lilith was rebellious and didn't want to be a wife, so God banished her and crafted Eve from Adam's rib.

I suspect a fundamental problem is trying to force the two creation stories together. In the first story in Genesis 1 it simply states that God created human beings in the image of God, both male and female. It's not until Genesis 2 that we have a discrete and distinct human person named Adam, and then soon after his wife Eve.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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