I don't think ANY assumption is valid. You still have yet to define to me what David meant when he said that he would go to his infant son. Still waiting.
Please define to me what you think a 'red herring' is. You've accused people many times of commiting this fallacy. And yes, you DID accuse me of being dishonest. When you tell me that I'm trying to make the scriptures say what I want it to say, that is an allegation of dishonesty. I'm not trying to fit a square peg in a round hole. This is what I truly believe. And yes, by pretty much calling me a liar, that was an ad hominem. And also, you took one hebrew word and tried to apply the meaning of it to the entire passage. Try looking up in the hebrew what the phrase 'going to my son' means, then come back to me. If it is a physical meaning then you have made your point.
It isn't an argument? Does God punish based on the 'Minority Report' system?
Ok. For real? You mean Israel isn't part of America? Duh. I could see it was a different culture. Well, not really. YOU were the one who brought up the 'culture' argument, so it is on you to prove that what I said didn't match culturally. You told me it was a different culture, but you failed to tell me how what I said didn't match the culture of the time. It isn't burden shifting. It is trying to get you to explain your 'unbacked assumption'. Sound familiar?
Um, you gave NO reasonable doubt. All you've managed to do was tell me that 'sheol' meant the grave (which makes NO sense because the word 'sheol' or hell don't even appear in the passage.) and you've told me that the culture was different at that time, so I quoted this scripture out of context culturally. But notice, you failed to show me HOW.
Well, perhaps you can tell me what Jesus meant when He said that the Kingdom of Heaven was made for children. That might help with your refutation.
You are reading too much into the passage. If the knowledge of the law hasn't penetrated your mind, then it isn't SIN. Here we have an oxymoron. 'Sin without knowledge' isn't sin. It is only sin when you receive the law and break it.
Now you are using a straw man. I never said that. I said a baby has a 'sin nature'. A sin nature is different than commiting sin. First, babies haven't received the law, so they can't break it. Secondly, you STILL fail to show me how babies miss the mark. If they can't sin (because knowledge of the law brings death, and breaking the law is credited as sin) then how can they miss the mark?
I am fully convinced you have no idea what a 'red herring' is.
No, I said they inherited a 'sin nature'. But they can't act on it until they receive the law. First, they have to know what the law says. Then they have to break it. Then, and ONLY then, will it be imputed as sin.
Now I did not say that. You did.

Hmm. You accuse me of not backing up my interpretation. However, I have given you plenty of scriptures and you have given me NONE. If there is anybody not backing up their position scripturally, it is you.