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Originally posted by closer
The Bible teaches freewill from the very issue of the first test.
God the great architect knew from beginning to end what was going to happen. He planned it. At the same time He being God forces choice.
Joshua asked the Israelites to choose whom they would serve.
The ministry of Jesus was one choice after another.
Everyman from the rich young ruler to Pilate had to choose.
Freewill is based upon the general revelation of God to man.
Also each man is responisble to choose how he will responed.
Is election unconditional? Without question. It is the complete and sovereign choice of God. How does this work in relation to man's freewill? That is a question that if God had wanted me to know the answer he would have told me.
Thank you for the correction regarding my statement on heresy as well it was a point well taken.
Originally posted by Reformationist
Both the rich young ruler and Pilate are examples of the fallen, unregenerate man. They are both unwilling, and unable, on their own to turn from their unrighteousness.
Originally posted by Blackhawk
Okay this is the hard one for me. I believe in Unconditional election. i do not think god has to look and see what I will do in the future to know if i a mgoing to be in the elect or not. Why? Because if He does wouldn't that mean that God has to learn? that would mean that He is not all-knowing. He is not perfect. So I think that God has to somehow know what we will choose without having to see what we will choose although He does see it. I would really like to hear everyone's thoughts on this one especially.
Originally posted by franklin
Hi blackhawk, Let me ask you some basic and logical questions if I may..... If you believe in this Calvanistic theory of unconditional election, how would you know you are saved?
The bible teaches "predestination", not "calvanistic predestination".
Scripture predestination is where God pre-determined, not the identity of the saved, but the character of the saved. Calvinistic predestination means that the future is already determined (predestined).
The implication is that it doesn't matter what you do, it has already happened.
You have no free will.
Originally posted by Reformationist
Please post scriptural reference that refutes Calvin's interpretation of the doctrine of unconditional election. As a side note, Calvin was not the forebearer of this doctrine. His beliefs are a result of a lifelong study of the Bible and of the works of St. Augustine and Martin Luther, among others.
Originally posted by franklin
I have no problem with the researching the scholarly writings of others, however, if it doesn't pass the test of the authority of scripture then I must subordinate their opinions and interpretations to second place.
I don't put my trust in theologians either.
The rule I try to follow is scripture interpreting scripture on it's own.
What is foreknown by God in these verses? Personal identity? Or Character, purpose & plan?
Romans 8:29-30, "For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified."
1 Corinthians 2:7, "But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom, which God ordained before the world unto our glory:"
Ephesians 1:3-4, "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ: According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:"
Remember, God is not a respecter of persons (Acts 10:34; Romans 2:11-12; 1 Peter 1:17). Unconditional Election makes the Devil no enemy for the saved to worry about, so if predestined, why beware? (1 Peter 5:8).
Originally posted by Reformationist
Hey franklin! Thanks for responding so quickly. I wholeheartedly agree with this. But, when reading the Bible, you are using someone's interpretation, even if it be your own. Even coupling passages that appear to support each other becomes difficult because, as we are not God, everything we acknowledge becomes filtered through the knowledge we have already aquired. The only way we can truly subordinate any interpretation is to determine if it is refuted by the Bible.
Originally posted by Reformationist
I wholeheartedly agree with this. But, when reading the Bible, you are using someone's interpretation, even if it be your own. Even coupling passages that appear to support each other becomes difficult because, as we are not God, everything we acknowledge becomes filtered through the knowledge we have already aquired. The only way we can truly subordinate any interpretation is to determine if it is refuted by the Bible.
I have to ask, and please don't take this the wrong way, how do you come by your knowledge base if not by the teachings of those more learned than yourself?
Do you receive some revelation or some feeling that assures you that what you're learning/believing is true? [/B]
The written word can often be hard to comprehend as tone of voice is not easily expressed. I just want to avoid any confusion. I am curious, though, how do you ever know if what you believe is true? [/B]
I don't follow.What do you mean here? Do you mean that when you're reading you cross reference and see if it matches up with your interpretation of other scripture? Or of your natural instinct? Or what you've been taught? [/B]
It's strange that you would use this passage to refute Calvin's interpretation as this is probably the most prominent of scriptures in support of his interpretation. Anyway, you asked, "What is foreknown by God in these verses? Personal identity, or Character, purpose & plan?" Well, the verse plainly states "those He foreknew." Right? So what does that mean? Well, God created everyone, right? So, wouldn't He "foreknow" everyone? The answer to this is quite simple. "Foreknew" in this context doesn't mean to "know ahead of time" as in a linear sense. It refers to an intimate relationship between God and His children, which is not everyone. This passage is a plan of sovereign saving grace, entitling all who now believe to trace their faith and salvation back to an eternal decision by God to bring them to glory, and to look forward to that glory as a guaranteed certainty. The destiny appointed for believers (conformity to Christ and glorification with Him) flows from divine foreknowledge. Here it is persons, not facts or events, that God has of His own initiative chosen as the objects of His active, saving love. As I said, "know" implies intimate personal relationship, not merely awareness of facts and circumstances (Gen. 4:1; Amos 3:2; Matt. 1:25); it is virtuallly the equivalent of "elect." [/B]
Originally posted by Project 86
Looks like I need to make some time to post some things on this topic. I have a lot of scripture on the topic but it will take me a while to get it all sorted. My view is that the bible makes a strong case that we have free will to accept Jesus's gift and that we are not hopeless when it comes to accepting it or not. God would never create someone FOR damnation. Some will face damnation but that's only because they have refused what God has offered. God commands all to repent Act 17:30 and 1 Timothy 2:4 tells us God desires all to be saved. So if no one has a choice it would then be logical that God would just create everyone for salvation because that's his desire. There would no need to create people for damnation if he's going to pick and choose anyways and not let us decide.
One argument I still will make tonight also is with Romans 9:15,21. That if briefly looked over would appear to support your belief but it's about God's divine use and service and not about our salvation.
Originally posted by franklin
hi reformer, like I said in my previous post, I do rely on the writings of others at the same time I put them to the test of scripture as stated in 2Tim3:16...
Scripture is the final authority to reprove any false teaching or doctrine. I don't claim to have all the answers and I do consult with others who have more spiritual and scriptural knowledge then I have.
I get my revelation from the scripture. I have never been able to figure out what some preachers on TV are always trying to say when they make statements like that. I usually take them with a grain of salt.
How do you know that what you believe is the truth?
Who is under consideration here? "Them that love God" ­ not a few whom God loves "The called according to His purpose,"
Do you believe that God selected us individually to be saved or lost or do you believe what the scripture teaches and that is those who accepted the gospel call would be saved?
I choose to believe God's plan. Not some man made doctrine.
I have to stop here reformer, I'm pressed for time and I will try to get back to your other comments later, BTW, I appreciate our discussion on this subject.
Originally posted by closer
In my study and opinion I can see both as evident in scripture.
Originally posted by closer
Still we also say light cannot exist in beams and particles in the same area yet light does.
Originally posted by Reformationist
If anyone feels like there is sufficient proof to support or negate either of these views please share it. To avoid confusion we should probably comment on one of the two at a time.
Additionally, I would personally be interested in seeing scriptural, or real life, support for the concept of "free will."
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