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Well, now that Stryder06 has abandoned Ellen White's eschatological meanderings
Getting back on topic is always a good thing, but my eschatological understanding remains the same.
So your private interpretation of scripture? Or someone else's?
1. Justin does not mention who was opposed.
2. Many during the early period of he church disagreed with a plethora of apostolic teachings. They went on to form cults like the ones that Ireneaus addresses in Agains Heresies.
3. Justin did not mention what the other beliefs were so you are just assuming that it was amil.
4. There is no extant text to prove that amil was even taught prior to the 3rd century.
5. The passage that you quoted from Ireneaus is speaking of the time when the 10 kings will rise and the antichrist will come to power which is prior to the tribulation. It has no bearing on the rapture.
I don't do the whole "private interpretation" thing. That's another one of those phrases that get's thrown around far too often. There is a proper interpretation of scripture, and there's an improper one.
Well, now that Stryder06 has abandoned Ellen White's eschatological meanderings <snip>
and now that we're all in agreement that if you ask a Catholic what the "official" position of the Catholic Church is on some matter you are very likely to get a reply that refers to or quotes from official Catholic teaching, we can proceed to the core issue in this thread .... why the dispensationalist rapture theory is not biblical
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Ok so how do you know what is proper interpretation vs improper interpretation of scripture?
The Spirit is not contrarious to himself. If the understanding comes at the expense of breaking the harmony of the scriptures, than I know that my understanding is wrong.
Yet but your own admission, there is right interpretation and wrong interpretation.
Those who interpret wrongly see themselves doing so in harmony with the scriptures.
So how does one know their interpretation is in harmony with the scriptures?
Indeed, how?Ok so how do you know what is proper interpretation vs improper interpretation of scripture?
These verses show that the holy scriptures do not need to be interpreted by anyone, for your sake, but that every man and women has known the holy scriptures since you were a child. All it takes is for you to read them, and learn them. Other people can help you, but I would suggest you read what the Bible says, and not let other's do your study for you. Man always has an aggenda, so let God speak to your heart, and leave man to his own demise."... no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost." 2 Peter 1:21
"And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus." 2 Timothy 3:15
I'm not saying Jesus lied. . but if someone says the apostles did not receive the all truth promised, then, by direct implication, they are saying Jesus lied.
If Jesus did not lie, then ALL TRUTH was given to the Apostles which means ALL of it was revealed to them, so nothing more is left to be revealed.
it is obvious on it's face to anyone who makes an honest read of the document presented as "proof", that there was no agreement at all on the matter
sorry .. seeing the word "chiliasm" and "chiliast" in a post too much was pretty funny . now to look up what that means .
There is no way you can make Scripture say this, but you have every right to believe that if you want to and I respect that.
1. You claim the Apostles not only received "all truth," but that Jesus actually promised this to them.
2. You state here that amil was not agreed upon, well over 100 years later.
3. You are forced to either admit your church made up a position via submitting to human closure, or your statement in 1 is pure falsehood.
This is known as check, and mate. You have no way to wiggle out of error being propagated by your infallible church.
One does not follow from the other.
The apostles taught Jesus' second coming, the resurrection of the dead, that who are alive when Jesus returns would be translated - changed never to experience the death of the body, that Jesus is reigning now over the kings of the earth, that the Church was facing great tribulation was evident in the every day life of christians.
Whether or not amillenialism was agreed upon by all is really immaterial.
So no, there is no "check and mate." You missed by a longshot only looking superficially at the problem, and not looking into any confounding factors to your corollary.
Of course it does. Amil was something there was "no agreement upon," over 100 years later, in your own words. Therefore Jesus did not give the Apostles truth on this point. Either there is no truth on this point that can be known but your church simply made it up due to being uncomfortable admitting it simply doesn't know, or Jesus didn't deliver all truth to the Apostles as you interpret Scripture to say. It has to be one or the other, you can't have it both ways.
Checkmate.
I'm glad you have the sense to agree on these things, but it really has no bearing on our discussion here.
So you're content that amil is not truth, and your church just made it up. Ok.
Jesus teaching the Apostles an amil position would've been a mighty confounding factor to any chiliast. How you overlooked that I don't know, but perhaps you should consider things like that before you go labelling others superficial.
What you have to accept is that Jesus did not teach the Apostles amil, and by your own standards that excludes it from being "all truth." Why then your church teaches it I'll leave for you to decipher, but clearly it isn't related to the original church as you claim. These are all your own words, presented back to you in an arrangement that shows the utter absurdity of the position. Cling to it all day, but don't be so shocked when others refuse to bow to your church as if it were some authority.