The crux of the matter is the hebrew word elohym. elohym can mean gods, god, magistrates,. Elohym is not a direct equivalent to our word God. That is where much confusion comes in. And I believe that the greek word theos was used to mean the hebrew word elohym by the Jews.jeffC said:Actually, I agree with Justin on this one.
In a previous post in this thread, I shared what I consider keys to understanding the relationship between Jesus and the Heavenly Father in the Bible:
1) Jesus and His Father are separate individuals (John 20:17, 1 Cor 8:6, John 3:16, Rom 15:6).
2) God the Father made Jesus a God; (Acts 2:36, Heb 1:2, 1 Cor 15:28, John 3:35, John 5:26, Rev 3:14).
3) Jesus is Jehovah of the Old Testament (see post #13 & #17)
4) Jesus represents His Father and His Father's will in all things. Jesus is the mediator of dealings between the Heavenly Father and man. (Col 1:19, Col 2:9, 1 Cor 11:3, 1 Jn 2:1)
I've asked this question before in this thread, and haven't gotten an answer yet: Where in the NT does Jesus identify God the Father as YHWY? To the contrary, Jesus is identified as YHWY. I gave some reasons why this is so in post 64. Also, from post 64 "It is in the NT that we learn of God the Father and Jesus as two different Gods, so it is also from the NT that we learn which one was LORD in the OT."
Saying Jesus is an elohym would mean that Jesus is God's representative not that he is god. Just as majistrates are called elohyms because they are god's representatives.
Jesus does not, IMO anywhere in the NT identify God as Jahweh. As far as I know. But the OT identifies Yahweh as god, which is all the proof I need that Yahweh is god.
I do not consider john 8;58 a reference to yahweh. Jesus and God are 2 gods but not the same kind of gods. Jesus is a god the way that we are gods (elohyms).
Yahweh is elohym but we elohyms are not yahweh.
John 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
jeffc said:I've read with interest many of your posts on this forum. From them I gather that you hold Jesus and God the Father to be seperate, numerically distinct persons (please correct me if I have misunderstood).
I would say 2 distinct beings. I do not consider God to be a person. ONly humans are presons. God is not a man.
I would have to explain each scripture on a case by case basis. I think my explanation above about elohym answers this question in part.jeffc said:This has been my stance throughout this discussion. If so, how do you explain plentiful NT statements declaring Jesus God? When God Himself declares Jesus God, how are there not two Gods in some very real sense?
No version that we have today. he was using manuscripts that don't even exist anymore.jeffc said:So, which version of the Bible do you think Origen was using?
jeffc said:Origen (and Justin Martyr too for that matter) was regarded very highly by contemporary theologians; Even most of those that disagreed with him on various issues (including this one) showered him with accolades. From my experience reading much of their works, your assertions that Justin and Origen were doctrinal lightweights do not persuade me.
I just bought a book with tons of quotes from early orthodox christians partly because early orthodox christians are discussed so much in here. My first exposure to Justin's writings left me with that impression that he didn't have much depth to his understanding of scripture.
I consider (from what little I have read from their writings, and what Others have written about them that I have read ) that most were probably born again christians, but not spirit filled christians. I believe that they were inspiried by god at times and at other times not. I would consider the quote of Justins that I quoted to be one of those times when his writings were not inspired by God.jeffc said:That said, I do not consider any of the early church fathers or apologists to have been inspired. To the contrary, I see them brining Hellenistic philosophies into their teachings and confusing doctrines, especially those regarding what would become the doctrine of the Trinity. However, all of the theologians before Athanasius (320 AD) taught some form of subordinationism. On this matter they were closer to the LDS viewpoint (and also the Bible's) on the relationship of Jesus to God the Father than to Their conflation at the Council at Nicea.
I believe their teachings to be a part of the general corruption of doctrine, and scritpures, that swept through the church immediately after and durring the apostles tenure.jeffc said:The early christian fathers were also closer to any original teachings of the the apostles not found in the Bible than later writers. So I find their insight valuable, though not on par with the words of the apostles found in the Bible.
Acts 20:29 For I know this, that after my departing shall grievous wolves enter in among you, not sparing the flock.
Acts 20:30 Also of your own selves shall men arise, speaking perverse things, to draw away disciples after them.
1 John 2:18 Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that antichrist shall come, even now are there many antichrists; whereby we know that it is the last time.
I have seen god with spiritual eyes, but I have never seen god with my natural eyes. I believe no one will ever see god with their natural eyes nor has anyone ever seen god with natural eyes. Abraham saw Jesus day not with his natural eyes but with spiritual eyes. I see Jesus all the time, but not with my natural eyes.jeffc said:As an aside, I also disagree with your take on John 1:18. Many scriptures indicate that prophets have indeed seen God: Matt 5:8, Acts 7:56, John 6:46, Gen 32:30, Ex. 33:11, Deut 34:10, Rev. 4:2-3 for starters. John himself clarifies his meaning just a few chapters later in 5:37 “And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape” and 6:46 “Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.” The phrase “not seen the Father,” applied to Jesus' present audience, and indeed to most people, but not to the exclusion of the possibility.
Upvote
0