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BTW, back in post #30 you made a claim.
I asked you for Scriptural reference of such a teaching and have not yet heard back from you. Do you have a response to that request?
Are you suggesting we should repeat the past in a lab?
Ah, you're the probablity guy, now i remember.So again, the probability resolves to 1.
Ah, you're the probablity guy, now i remember.
I also remember refuting that but i'm not planning on doing it again right now.
It most definitely did.I remember you responding with a collection of words to my earlier presentation of this. It certainly did not amount to a refutation.
I certainly am not (and I don't suspect Speedwell would either) suggesting that the "days" of the Genesis creation narrative should be interpreted as anything other than "literal" days (sun up to sun down, or whatever is the normal constitution of a "day"). The question is not whether these words should be interpreted literally, but whether the narrative itself should be interpreted as an "historical" narrative (in the sense of modern notions of historicity). It is not the features of the narrative that should be necessarily be interpreted literally or figuratively (e.g., I don't think we need to say that "day" is "1000 years", or "1000000 years" or "an age"), but rather the framework in which it is written. That is, did the authors have modern notions of historicity in mind when composing this, and thus perceived it to be an accurate and evidence-based accounting of "what happened, in actuality" ('happened-ness' and 'actuality', of course, being based on the assumptions of modern criteria)? Or, as I would suggest, is this a narrative composed that has theological instruction as its main intention?
If the former is assumption, it would stand in remarkable contrast to the other creation narratives that were extant at the time of the writing of Genesis, narratives from which many features were clearly borrowed. Does this, then, mean that all other ANE creation narratives were also attempts at "historical" narrative? And if so, should we not also consider them to be (at least in part) "inspired" as well, given that they contributed to the structure and content of the Genesis narratives?
I don't think it's an issue of one or the other, as if they understood themselves as "not" getting the facts of the story right. This criteria betrays a very modern notion of historicity, a notion which places value in narrative when it corresponds to modern notions about the verifiability and demonstrability of recorded history. If the ancient writers did not share such stark bifurcations in their understanding of "history" and "story-telling", then such a question really becomes inappropriate to ask, as the assumptions necessary for the relevance of the question requires the adoption of philosophical paradigms for which there is no evidence that they existed at the time of the authorship of Scripture.
That is not accurate. A more accurate way of saying it is that Scripture is *attributed* to about this many writers. If you review the scholarship on the subject of biblical authorship, the actual number of probable authors and contributors is significantly greater than that (not even including the editorial contributions that would certainly have been included).
No one is suggesting that this isn't possible. The issue is that there is no reason, based on the context in which the authorship of the Scriptures occurred (particularly of the most ancient parts), to assume that this would be a relevant feature. Of course it's possible; but an analysis of the text in the greater context of ANE literature suggests a different conclusion.
Again, the question of whether or not God "could have done" something is irrelevant. God could have inspired the authors to write nothing but soup recipes as well.
We are talking about taking the full measure of the narratives in light of the greater context of ANE literature/culture/worldview. While the Scriptures certainly *could* be a completely novel and anomalous occurrence within the broader milieu of ancient life, one would have to question why that assumption should be made. After all, the writing of the Scriptures was not made in a vacuum, and was not made just for the sake of unnamed future generations. No, it was written in the life and times of people who had specific worldviews, assumptions about the nature of reality, ideas about God, etc. If the Scriptures do not, in the very first case, present themselves as relevant within the situation of *those* people, then I would suggest we should be quite skeptical about the result of our interpretations. Unless the people of Israel held to drastically divergent worldviews from the cultures by which they were surrounded, I would suggest that we should suspect that the literature of the people of Israel would look a lot like the religious/theological/cultural literature of the surrounding cultures. And as I've already pointed out now several times, an analysis and comparison of the ancient texts of the Scriptures with similar narratives and theological/religious writings in the broader spectrum of ANE literature suggests that this is, in fact, precisely the case.
It most definitely did.
Excellent post, and you're doing a way better job than me.So, my ultimate intent here is not to offend anyone. It is to cause one who in some way denies the truth of something revealed to us in the Scriptures to stop and consider what position this may put them in before their God and Creator. I believe that God's true children believe God.
God bless you.
In Christ, Ted
Agreed.I guess we'll have to agree to disagree.
You and Speedwell make an awful lot of claims based on other ancient writings. And use a lot of assumptions in your claims.
The Bible is the inspired,word of God.
It is NOT just an ancient writing.
All the other books and literature and beliefs of other ancient cultures are NOT inspired by God.
What that means the bible stands as the unique and only arbiter of truth.
If the bible says something happened,in a certain way and that way,diverges from other writings then the bible is,correct and all,others are wrong.
Because God inspired the,writing to be truth. I repeat myself. God is not a man that he should lie.
If other writings agree with scripture then they are right, because all things must be tested against scripture. Again the reason for that is scripture is inspired by God and other literature is not. The bible is the measuring stick against which all other beliefs, thoughts and writing must be measured. Because it is inspired by God and God is truth and does not lie.
The Israelites WERE unique among all other cultures of the time.
So yes they had a different and unique world,view because they believed in one God and they followed that God and his teachings which where different than anyone else's.
I hope I was clear enough for you guys this time. (that sounds snarky, not meant to be). I just want you guys to,be clear on why the bible and Israel cannot be looked at like any other ancient writing or culture you may have heard about.
Western historicity is irrelevant to,this discussion. If indeed the,world,was created in,six days as the bible says, western historical thought is irrelevant. Six days is six days. Unless,of course your philosophy is nothing is real and a day is all relative. Maybe a day to you is six hours,and to,someone else it is 36 hours etc. I obviously do not subscribe to that type of thinking.
It takes no special thought or understanding. You don't have to,read a,bunch of textbooks or dive into ancient historical thoughts or read ancient Hebrew to follow along the narrative. It's not that difficult.
Yes, obviously. The same as the assumptions you are making about what the "inspiredness" of the Scriptures must necessitate. Pot, meet kettle.
Let's grant that this is true. What does that actually mean? What are the marks of inspiredness? What are the consequences of "inspiration" for the text itself? Simply saying that the Scriptures are "inspired" doesn't really tell us anything about what we should expect to see in the writing itself. This is primarily a result of the lack of other inspired literature against which to compare it. We don't have a "standard" of "what inspired literature looks like and the consequences that it produces in interpretation", so we have no way in which to say that we should expect anything particularly different between the ancient writers of "inspired" Scripture, and writers of "non-inspired" religious literature.
Of course, your response is that Scriptures are themselves the "standard"; but certainly you recognize the hopeless circularity of such a claim, a circularity which allows the interpreter to basically impute any and all assumptions whatsoever they like in order to define the marks of "inspiration".
Let's grant that it is not "just" ancient writing. Certainly you acknowledge that it is "still" ancient writing? If you grant this, then it's hard to understand how the interpretive rules for for ancient literature should be expected to be radically different from that of other ancient literature, especially when many of the early narratives and epics within Scripture bear such remarkable resemblance to similar epics and narratives within ANE literature that predates it...
Again, even if we grant this claim, it doesn't give us any information about we should handle the interpretation in such a way that would distinguish it from how we would interpret other ancient literature.
For example, let's take the Sumerian kings lists. They are full of numerology and assign to the listed rules outrageous (to the modern mind) "years" of rule.
In the early Genesis genealogies, we find extraordinarily similar "lists", with similarly numerological assignments.
Given the similarity between the two, it seems reasonable that we would apply similar standards to the interpretation of the "years". Do we interpret them as *actual* (from a modern historical perspective) years of rule/life, or do we look for meaning within the numerology of the "years"?
And to get at your argument, should we interpret one numerologically (the Sumerian kings list, for example) and the other historically? Does the nature of inspiration somehow require this bifurcation in methodology? Or is it more likely that one has a certain bias about what "inspiration" should mean (e.g., that "historical" things should accord with modern assumptions regarding historicity) and is imputing this to the interpretation? I would argue that the latter is the more likely in this example.
Again, you're not saying anything that has actual content. "Arbiter of truth" is a nice platitude, but the determination and evaluation of "truth" assumes a lot; how does one determine truth? It is absolutely based on the "historicity" of events? If so, I would argue that you are being unduly influenced by modern, western biases...biases which I would suggest the ancient writers did not share.
Again, you are importing a mountain of assumptions regarding "happened-ness". History is not a static, unchanging value. Our understanding of "history" is based on our philosophical biases, our worldview, our understanding of the universe, the principles that we apply when "demonstrating" the historical, etc. The question we must ask, then, is whether these assumptions were shared by the ancient authors? If they were, then I agree that the interpretive methodology is probably sound. However, if they do not share the same biases, and were not strictly concerned with reporting "happened-ness", then we would do a disservice to the text by imposing such requirements upon it.
No one is suggesting that the Scriptures aren't truth. The content is whether "truth" is solely located (as modern, historical-criticism assumes) in the "happened-ness" of narrative. I would argue that it is certainly not limited to this, and furthermore, would suggest that such a notion would be alien to the ancient writers.
A wonderfully convenient circularity of logic. But it doesn't actually say anything, other than that you are now empowered to impute whatever standards you desire into the interpretation of the text.
Every culture is unique to a certain extent. However, if you study the Hebrew literature against earlier religious literature of the more dominant, surrounding cultures, it is difficult to not see the borrowing of common narrative motifs woven throughout Genesis.
Yes, their religious institutions were different; however, there clearly wasn't a major philosophical leap required for them to move from worship of Jehovah to worship of foreign gods (as this is a persistent problem throughout the history of Israel). So it is quite an overstatement to suggest that their fundamental worldview was markedly different from that of the surrounding peoples. Once again, the usage of the common narrative motifs from ANE literature that are found within Scripture are sufficient evidence of this. After all, if their worldview was so fundamentally different, surely they would not have had any resonance with the supposedly alien "fables" of the surrounding cultures. And yet, we find exactly the opposite
It's clear that your reasoning is based on a hopelessly circular set of assumptions, assumptions which have absolutely no safeguard against the simple imposition of a western, modernist mindset on the ancient world of the Scriptures.
Excellent post, and you're doing a way better job than me.
We're not making "claims" we're raising questions--fairly obvious questions which someone defending your Bible doctrine ought to have ready answers to.You and Speedwell make an awful lot of claims based on other ancient writings. And use a lot of assumptions in your claims.
.
You obviously do not believe in the inspiration and authority of scripture.
We're not making "claims" we're raising questions--fairly obvious questions which someone defending your Bible doctrine ought to have ready answers to.
Instead, what we get boils down to "The Bible means what I say it means because it is inspired" garnished with hostile recriminations.
In fact, Ted just read me out of the Christian faith for it--in a relatively civil way for a creationist, but decisively.
Is that what preaching the Gospel means to you? First require that they accept a literal interpretation of Genesis and if they won't do that tell them to go to hell?
which someone defending your Bible doctrine ought to have ready answers to.
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