Matthew 24:30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound(phone) of a trumpet(salpigx), and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
Luke 21:27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.
28 And when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh.
This is what these 2 accounts record. Matthew 24 records that it involves a great sound of a trumpet. Are there any passages outside of the gospel accounts that involve both a coming and a trumpet? There is the following below that does, but you likely chalk that up as a coincidence, thus no connection.
Thessalonians 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice(phone) of the archangel, and with the trump(salpigx) of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
In Luke 21:28 per the context involving the coming of the Son of man, it records this---then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh, rather than what Matthew 24:31 records, yet it is obviously involving what Matthew 24:31 is involving.
This verse indicates that one's redemption draweth nigh when these things begin to come to pass, and that it has to be meaning the day of redemption as is recorded in the verse below. How can you have something drawing nigh, that it is beginning to do that 2000 years ago, but that the day of redemption is still in the future, that that day has not even arrived yet? This means per your interpretation that one's redemption that draweth nigh, that this nigh is meaning at least 2000 years in length. I thought Preterists argued, for example, if something is drawing nigh, it means it is soon to come to pass, like real soon. Something that is drawing nigh 2000 years ago and then it finally coming to pass some 2000 years later, hardly sounds like it is describing something soon to come to pass, like real soon.
Ephesians 4:30 And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.
BTW, I know how things basically work, which may or may not apply to you in this case since I don't recall whether you were initially a futurist or not. Since some Preterists were initially futurists then eventually switched to Preterism, therefore, there is no turning back once one has done that. But if there is such a thing as having been right to begin with though, then I don't see why anyone would need to think there is no turning back once one has switched from one view to another.
part 2:
1.) did the “AOD” occur during the first century?
Depends on the presupposition, and what is meant by the “AOD”? In keeping with the actual definition and use of “this generation” , I believe it does refer to Jesus’ contemporaries. Additionally, the parallel passage from Luke tells what the AOD is: armies surrounding Jerusalem.
2.) did the sun and moon stop giving light, and did the stars fall from heaven in the first century? Did the heavens and earth pass away in the first century?
depends on the presupposition. Is this to be understood as literal? If yes, then this did not occur in the first century. However, if this is to be understood metaphorically, then the argument can be made that this did occur in the first century, and that “genea” can continue to mean it’s actual definition and remain consistent with with its biblical use. Such language as being metaphorical is consistent with The OT. See below commentaries for evidence:
Matthew henry (isaiah 13:10)
“The stars of heaven shall not give their light, the sun shall be darkened. Such expressions are often employed by the prophets, to describe the convulsions of governments.”
Barnes (isaiah 13:10)
“For the stars of heaven - This verse cannot be understood literally, but is a metaphorical representation of the calamities that were coming upon BabylonThe meaning of the figure evidently is, that those calamities would be such as would be appropriately denoted by the sudden extinguishment of the stars, the sun, and the moon. As nothing would tend more to anarchy, distress, and ruin, than thus to have all the lights of heaven suddenly and forever quenched, this was an apt and forcible representation of the awful calamities that were coming upon the people. Darkness and night, in the Scriptures, are often the emblem of calamity and distress (see the note at
Matthew 24:29). The revolutions and destructions of kingdoms and nations are often represented in the Scriptures under this image.”
Jamie fausset brown (isaiah 13:10)
“10. stars, &c.—figuratively for anarchy, distress, and revolutions of kingdoms (Isa 34:4; Joe 2:10; Eze 32:7, 8; Am 8:9; Re 6:12-14). There may be a literal fulfilment finally, shadowed forth under this imagery (Re 21:1).”
gills (isaiah 13:10)
“For the stars of heaven,.... This and what follows are to be understood, not literally, but figuratively, as expressive of the dismalness and gloominess of the dispensation, of the horror and terror of it, in which there was no light, no comfort, no relief, nor any hope of any; the heavens and all the celestial bodies frowning upon them, declaring the displeasure of him that dwells there:”
benson commentary (Isaiah 13:10)
“Or, rather, the prophet foretels the utter subversion of their republic, and the entire overthrow of their religion and polity, under the emblem of the extinction or passing away of the sun, moon, and stars, and all the heavenly bodies. For, as Bishop Lowth observes, the Hebrew writers, “to express happiness, prosperity, the instauration and advancement of states, kingdoms, and potentates, make use of images taken from the most striking parts of nature; from the heavenly bodies, from the sun, moon, and stars, which they describe as shining with increased splendour, and never setting; the moon becomes like the meridian sun, and the sun’s light is augmented seven-fold: see
Isaiah 30:26. New heavens and a new earth are created, and a brighter age commences. On the contrary, the overthrow and destruction of kingdoms are represented by opposite images; the stars are obscured, the moon withdraws her light, and the sun shines no more; the earth quakes, and the heavens tremble; and all things seem tending to their original chaos.”
3.) did the son of man come on the clouds in the first century?
depends on the presupposition. Is this to be understood as Christ literally, bodily, and physically descending from heaven for all eyes to literally see? If so, then this did not happen in the first century.
However, if we are to remain consistent with the NT/LXX use of genea, then maybe the above presupposition is wrong. So did Christ come on the clouds in the first century? I would argue yes, as the Bible declares, outside of olivet discourse, that Christ was coming on the clouds:
Matthew 24:64
64“You have said it yourself,” Jesus answered. “But I say to all of you,
from now on you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of Power
j and
coming on the clouds of heaven.”
revelation 1:7 Behold, He
is coming (present tense verb) with the clouds,
Additionally, OT language often represented God descending from heaven on the clouds with respect to judging nations and enemies (2 Samuel 22, Isaiah 19, Micah 1, etc…). This further adds evidence to the idea of Christ coming on the clouds to judge Israel, and not that the OD is discussing the future “2nd advent”.
If the latter is to be understood as correct, then we can say, yes, this did occur during the first century, in the disciples generation.
4.) did the angels gather the elect from the four winds of heaven on the first century?
depends on the presupposition. Is this to be understood as literal physical bodies flying into the air? If yes, then i agree, this did not occur in the first century.
However, if it is to be understood in light of the parable of the wedding feast, where the servants of the king go out gather the good and bad into wedding feast following Israel’s destruction, then we can say, yes, this did in fact occur within the first century, during the disciples generation.
None of these beliefs are exclusive to full preterism, as evidenced by the following:
Gills exposition on Matthew 24:34
“Verily I say unto you, this generation shall not pass,.... Not the generation of men in general; as if the sense was, that mankind should not cease, until the accomplishment of these things; nor the generation, or people of the Jews, who should continue to be a people, until all were fulfilled; nor the generation of Christians; as if the meaning was, that there should be always a set of Christians, or believers in Christ in the world, until all these events came to pass; but it respects that present age, or generation of men then living in it; and the sense is, that all the men of that age should not die, but some should live
till all these things were fulfilled; see
Matthew 16:28 as many did, and as there is reason to believe they might, and must, since all these things had their accomplishment, in and about forty years after this: and certain it is, that John, one of the disciples of Christ, outlived the time by many years; and, as Dr. Lightfoot observes, many of the Jewish doctors now living, when Christ spoke these words, lived until the city was destroyed; as Rabban Simeon, who perished with it, R. Jochanan ben Zaccai, who outlived it, R. Zadoch, R. Ishmael, and others: this is a full and clear proof, that not anything that is said before, relates to the second coming of Christ, the day of judgment, and end of the world; but that all belong to the coming of the son of man, in the destruction of Jerusalem, and to the end of the Jewish state.”