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It is astonishing that it is so hard for people to see what is written. The doctrine of eternal torment is so ingrained that the eyes pass right over the words. Look at Number 16:33 again:
So they and all that belonged to them went down alive to Sheol; and the earth closed over them, and they perished from the midst of the assembly.
I bolded the part that I really want you to see, and they perished.
They perished.
If that's true, I'll have to take your word for it, I don't read Hebrew.Yes it is so hard for people to see what is written! You criticize someone else then do exactly what you accuse them of!
Does the passage you alluded to say "they perished", as you said twice, as if the people ceased to exist? Or does the passage say "they perished from the midst of the assembly?" The words "from the midst of the assembly" indicates not that they ceased to exist but they were no longer among the assembly! Here is the word translated "perished!" Note the highlighted meanings!
H6 אבד 'âbad
BDB Definition:
1) perish, vanish, go astray, be destroyed
1a) (Qal)
1a1) perish, die, be exterminated
1a2) perish, vanish (figuratively)
1a3) be lost, strayed
1b) (Piel)
1b1) to destroy, kill, cause to perish, to give up
1b2) to blot out, do away with, cause to vanish, (figuratively)
1b3) cause to stray, lose
1c) (Hiphil)
1c1) to destroy, put to death
1c1a) of divine judgment
1c2) object name of kings (figuratively)
Part of Speech: verb
A Related Word by BDB/Strong’s Number: a primitive root
Same Word by TWOT Number: 2
If that's true, I'll have to take your word for it, I don't read Hebrew.
The english translation said perish, so I did. I noticed that one of the definitions in your group includes "be destroyed."
Why does the translation say "perish"?
What I say is amazingly easy to verify, google on interlinear Hebrew Old Testament. Yes, one of the definitions is destroy, but it has a wider range of meaning and we cannot assume it means destroy in every case, especially when it is qualified as it is in Num16:33.
CEV Num 16:32 and swallowed them alive, together with their families and everything they owned. Then the ground closed back up, and they were gone.
Num 16:33 (SEE 16:32)
NIV Num 16:33 They went down alive into the grave, with everything they owned; the earth closed over them, and they perished and were gone from the community.
I did and the first definition was perish. I really am not trying to mislead anyone. Neither do I wish to be misled by anyone. PLMarquette seemed to be indicating that these people were alive in Sheol. We can certainly agree that is not the case.What I say is amazingly easy to verify, google on interlinear Hebrew Old Testament. Yes, one of the definitions is destroy, but it has a wider range of meaning and we cannot assume it means destroy in every case, especially when it is qualified as it is in Num16:33.
CEV Num 16:32 and swallowed them alive, together with their families and everything they owned. Then the ground closed back up, and they were gone.
Num 16:33 (SEE 16:32)
NIV Num 16:33 They went down alive into the grave, with everything they owned; the earth closed over them, and they perished and were gone from the community.
this case is different to 'destroy' as in the lake of fire. They are going down straight to Sheol (grave) and died. After the resurrection on the last day, then the unsaved would be thrown into the lake of fire to be destroyed.
I did and the first definition was perish. I really am not trying to mislead anyone. Neither do I wish to be misled by anyone. PLMarquette seemed to be indicating that these people were alive in Sheol. We can certainly agree that is not the case.
I still think the references in Isaiah and Ezekiel to dead people walking are talking are not meant to be taken literally. I can't prove this any more than you can prove that they are literal. However I can say that I have never seen a dead person walk or heard them talk. That coupled with the fact that we know Isaiah and Ezekiel sometimes use figurative language should be enough to convince an objective observer that dead people aren't conscious in the Sheol.
I still think the references in Isaiah and Ezekiel to dead people walking are talking are not meant to be taken literally. I can't prove this any more than you can prove that they are literal. However I can say that I have never seen a dead person walk or heard them talk. That coupled with the fact that we know Isaiah and Ezekiel sometimes use figurative language should be enough to convince an objective observer that dead people aren't conscious in the Sheol.
It is not a requirement for a prophet to state "I'm speaking figuratively now," and if it is required that a prophet clearly state when he goes into metaphor, Why didn't Isaiah say "Even the pine trees and the cedars of Lebanon exult over you and figuratively say..."Right, that is what you think! You say you have never seen a dead person walk or heard them talk? How many times have you been in Sheol or Hades? Here is what I think, "If the plain sense (of scripture) makes good sense it is nonsense to look for any other sense." I also think that God and Jesus say what they mean and mean what they say unless they clearly state otherwise. And I have shown that the ancient Jews understood Isaiah 14:9, 10 to be literal.
Heres one
1Ti 5:6 But she that liveth in pleasure is dead while she liveth.
Heres another...
Mat 8:22 But Jesus said unto him, Follow me; and let the dead bury their dead.
These, I wouldnt think are carnally dead (as in the body without the Spirit) type of dead, but perhaps spritually dead (since they are either living in pleasure or as dead burrying their dead).
Then here is interesting...
Prov 21:16 The man that wandereth out of the way of understanding shall remain in the congregation of the dead.
The above in light of proverbs 9:16-18 too... speaking of congregations...
Rev 3:1 And unto the angel of the church in Sardis write; These things saith he that hath the seven Spirits of God, and the seven stars; I know thy works, that thou hast a name that thou livest, and art dead.
Dead could be in a figurative sense (in that the body itself is alive) but dead spiritually (in that sense). Though... I dont know if its right to say being dead "is figurative" just because it might be spiritually true (verses carnally true). I guess because its no less true but its "the sense" in which its speaking might be different.
Gees, did I put that right?
Do you think these passages are meant to be taken literally?
No, it says he rose up from the ground. There is no Heaven in the Old Testament, only Sheol.And concerning 1 Samuel 28, that was Samuel speaking from heaven.
I guess I was asking "physically so." I'm glad to hear that it's not a "night of the living dead" type situation.Depends on what you mean, if you think I believe in walking zombies (in the sci-fi sense) of the walking dead, then no. But if one is dead while one lives, clearly they are not physically dead (in the carnal sense, ie the body is alive). But do I believe they are dead (after a spiritual truth)? Yes, unless Paul is lying when he says she who lives for pleasure is dead (while she lives)..Otherwise I might have to scratch it out of the scriptures. Its obvious one living for pleasure is not carnally dead, the other option is that shes not spiritually alive and settle for understanding this as meaning "spiritually dead"... make sense?
Dead is dead, whether "spiritually so" or "carnally so".
So wouldnt that be "literally so" in one of those two senses?
I guess I was asking "physically so." I'm glad to hear that it's not a "night of the living dead" type situation.