Yahoo, academic theology!
I have a counter-example for you. Suppose that God decides (
per impossibile?) that the universe shall not have any existence subsequent to 8:12pm (GMT), 12th February 2012.
Welcome to eschatology. Both Jesus and Paul thought this was going to happen sometime before 80 AD.
Now, the event of the universe's non-existence is an effect with a clear cause. However, it is obviously meaningless to attempt to ascribe any temporal ordering to this cause-and-effect relationship, since there is nothing within the universe that is capable of causing the universe itself to not-exist, nor is there anything after this end-point which can be caused by this non-existence.
1. There is a temporal ordering, isn't there? After all, we have a. God deciding, b. God acting, and then c. universe ceasing to exist.
2. I don't think the cause and effect chain requires that the causes be within the universe. After all, ekpyrotic says that the cause of the destruction of our universe will be a 'brane that is not part of our 4 dimensional 'brane.
3. God closing the universe obviously
ends the cause and effect chain, so your last point is somewhat irrelevant, isn't it?
I guess the question then is this. Suppose we posit instead that "the universe exists at 8:12pm GMT 12th February 2012" is an effect. What then is the cause of this effect?
The events that happen on that day (rain, sunshine, etc.) all have causes that can be traced back and back and back until you get to a First Cause. Right?
Right now, science can trace that cause and effect back to the singularity of the Big Bang. What then is the cause of the Big Bang? THERE you get to First Cause. An uncaused Cause that starts the universe going.
Or is the cause "God wills the universe to exist at 8:12pm GMT 12th February 2012"?
That is part of standard Christian theology. The universe ceases to exist if God ceases to will it to exist. That becomes the supernatural component of the cause. What we have been talking about up to this point is the
material component of the cause. But that chain of material causes and effect traces back to First Cause.
If the former, then clearly only a universe with a temporal beginning can include a transcendent creator in its chain of causation.
True. Which is why Aristotle's always existing universe and Hawking's No Boundary Proposal eliminate God (which is why each of them are popular with atheists); the universe has no temporal beginning.
(Nevertheless, one then has to ask about the causation of the initial moment of the universe - what is the cause of "The universe begins"? Isn't it "God begins the universe"? And thus is there a problem with the causation of this particular event being essentially different to the causation of all particular events subsequent to it?)
Right. Instead of sustaining the universe, we have God acting
directly as First Cause.
If the latter, then there is no problem with a universe with infinite temporal extent being created (since, even though this universe has an infinite number of temporally-marked events, they are all caused by a Creator).
This doesn't work, unfortunately. At this point, the idea that you need a supernatural component of material causes becomes untenable. If the universe always existed and always will exist, it become self-contained and loses the requirement for a Creator.
there is ultimately no assurance whatsoever of the naturalism that is so necessary for scientific endeavor.
There are 2 types of naturalism: methodological and philosophical. Methodological naturalism is not so much
necessaryfor science as
forced onto science. Methodological naturalism arises from how we do experiments and limits science to looking
only at material causes. That supernatural component of causes that you stated above: "God wills the universe to exist ". Science is simply incapable of testing that statement. We simply cannot design the experiment -- because we can't make the appropriate controls -- to determine whether God wills the universe to exist or wills any of the processes found by science to happen.
So yes, we have
no assurance that philosophical naturalism is true. This is the prime statement of faith necessary for atheism: natural happens without God.
But what is the best framework within which to understand the creationists' desire to have the Bible over-reaching its authority? I am not convinced that "idolatry" is an accurate or helpful framework for understanding the creationist mistake.
Let's look at the historical framework. The end result is indeed idolatry, but it didn't start out that way. Creationism/Fundamentalism arose out of
sola scriptura. Initially in the Protestant Reformation the idea of
sola scriptura was that you did not need any intercessor (like a priest) to find God. Each person had his/her own personal relationship with God. The role of scripture was to help you find God and that personal relationship. All you needed was scripture -- not a priest --
sola scriptura. And so we find Luther and others translating the Bible from Latin to the various spoken languages: so people can read scripture for themselves without requiring a priest to translate.
For
sola scriptura to work, you need to trust scripture as
theologically accurate. John Calvin's
Commentaries specifically said the Bible was theologically accurate but not scientifically accurate. However, 100 years after his death the Westminster Confession for the reformed tradition he founded declared that the Bible was "inerrant". Not just theologically accurate but
completely accurate. In the later half of the 19th century Higher Criticism really got going, and this called into question the traditional authorship of the Pentateuch, the gospels, and some of the letters in the NT. If Moses did not write the Pentateuch and disciples did not write the gospels, then that raised the question (in some people's minds) that those might not be accurate. I hypothesize that these people did not have a personal relationship with God. If you don't have that relationship, then scripture seems to be all you have. If that is not accurate, then you have no basis (in their minds) to believe.
So from the period 1880 to 1910, we get a new religion -- Fundamentalism -- founded on the doctrine that the Bible is inerrant and literal. It becomes all about the Bible. You can see that when Fundies say scripture is "the Word of God". You and I know that "Word" is Jesus. But now a literal Bible is the Word. Antagonistic or not, this is now bibliolatry and false idol worship. I suggest you read this essay:
http://www.newreformation.org/heresy3.htm
There are 2 other strands at work here.
1. In focussing on a literal Bible, Fundies are ignoring the Christian tradition that God has
two books: scripture and Creation.
2. In insisting on a literal Bible, Fundies are also making a tragic logical mistake: they are tying untestable statements of ultimate meaning -- God exists, God created, salvation, et. -- to
very testable statements about how God created. This works OK as long as the testable statements are supported. But when the testable statements are shown to be false, then, because of the bad logic, the untestable statements of ultimate meaning also come into question. We can see this very clearly with the creationist argument that if there is no literal Adam, there is no literal Fall, there is no inherited sin, there is no need of Jesus, and finally there is no salvation. The statement of ultimate meaning is salvation. This is untestable. But by tying it to a literal Adam the Fundies/creationists not only make it testable, but also falsifiable. When the evidence shows no literal Adam, they get really upset because they (mistakenly) see salvation being falsified.
The second reason (one that does not bow to man's approval!) is that the content of the Bible is indeed authorized (if, perhaps, not "authored" in the usual sense of the word) by God - and it is authorized in a way that most idols (money, sex, power, Baal, etc.) are not. My issue with couching the problem as "idolatry" is: it suggests that the solution is to completely deny any authorization for the Bible to speak down to us as a divine text judging sinful humanity.
I would say this is a non-sequitor. Remember 2 Tim. 3:16. What does Paul say one of the things scripture is good for? For instruction in righteousness! IOW, as providing means to judge sinful humanity.
Remember, the problem is not the Bible itself. "judging sinful humanity" is part of
theology. We maintain the Bible is theologically accurate. It is actually Fundamentalism with its inerrant and literal doctrine that endangers the theological accuracy of the Bible. It is one reason this false idol must be resisted.
to suggest that creationism is an idolatry of the Bible is to suggest that the solution is to subjugate the Bible. That is why I asked you what the proper place of the Bible is, and why I was gratified to see you answer in the way that you have.
To say "creationism is bibliolatry" is a bit of shorthand. To be precise and completely accurate, it is insisting on a
literal, inerrant interpretation of the Bible that is false idol worship. It is that interpretation that leads to bibliolatry as you worship
that particular interpretation as a god.