Others have rightly identified the false assumptions on the main portion of your post, I would like to deal with your issues in the footnote portion.
"Footnote: I will refute the Kalam Cosmological Argument here so it cannot be said that I'm ignoring it.
The argument asserts that there must have been a cause for the t=0 event. The problem is lies in the definition of causality:
A system is a region of space.
A state is the arrangement of matter, energy, and otherwise existing things within a system.
Causality acts on a system to take it from one state to another over a duration of time."
Certainly an educated person would recognize something is wrong with this formulation as it not only denies God as having a causal role but attempts to create an argument that excludes all possible causation whatsoever.
P1 system~region in space (since the standard model suggest space is created by the Big Bang, it is impossible to have a system outside of this universe).
P2 State ~ arrangement of matter and energy (same objection as P1 no Big Bang = no matter, energy, and otherwise existing things).
Causality therefore couldn't have happened at all by anything.
So let's look at the Kalam Cosmological argument:
1. Whatever begins to exist has a cause of its existence.
2. The universe began to exist.
2.1 Argument based on the impossibility of an actual infinite.
2.11 An actual infinite cannot exist.
2.12 An infinite temporal regress of events is an actual infinite.
2.13 Therefore, an infinite temporal regress of events cannot exist.
2.2 Argument based on the impossibility of the formation of an actual infinite by successive addition.
2.21 A collection formed by successive addition cannot be actually infinite.
2.22 The temporal series of past events is a collection formed by successive addition.
2.23 Therefore, the temporal series of past events cannot be actually infinite.
3. Therefore, the universe has a cause of its existence.
Notice how obvious the first premise is.
"It is based on the metaphysical intuition that something cannot come out of nothing. Hence, any argument for the principle is apt to be less obvious than the principle itself. Even the great skeptic David Hume admitted that he never asserted so absurd a proposition as that something might come into existence without a cause; he only denied that one could prove the obviously true causal principle.29 With regard to the universe, if originally there were absolutely nothing-no God, no space, no time-, then how could the universe possibly come to exist? The truth of the principle ex nihilo, nihil fit is so obvious that I think we are justified in foregoing an elaborate defense of the argument's first premiss." (See link below)
For over 2300 years we have had a description of causation offered to us by Aristotle:
· Efficient causation, which is the cause that brings into being its effect – the productive cause of some thing.
· Material causation, which is the stuff out of which some thing is made.
· Formal causation, which is a sort of pattern or information content of the effect.
· Final causation, which is the end or the goal or purpose for which some thing is created.
By equivocating efficient cause with material cause the OP destroys causation of the universe altogether as a possibility (oops).
A simple fallacy which does serious worldview damage if not caught early.
Read more:
http://www.reasonablefaith.org/the-existence-of-god-and-the-beginning-of-the-universe#ixzz4M2UeVmS4
Hope this helps.