Florin Lăiu
Newbie
Each biblical reference has its contextual value and interpretation. Jeremiah 46:28 cannot refer simply to the Israelite nationality. Most of Israelite tribes have been lost among pagans, because they had become pagan. The Jewish blood today is derived only from Judah, Benjamin, Levi and some prozelytes (e. g. khazars). No Dan, no Ephraim, no Gad or Manasseh etc. Jeremiah knew that God’s prophecies (promissions or threats) are always conditional (Jeremiah 18:5-11). Thus Jeremiah prophesied that the Jerusalem will be rebuild after the exile, and that tyhe post-exilic Jerusalem will NEVER be destroyed (Jeremiah 31:38-40). But it was destroyed, unfortunately! Even Jesus lamented on its destiny, indicating that He had other expectation from Jerusalem (Luke 19:41-44), and from the Jewish leaders (Luke 7:29-30).Your life is interesting! Now, with regards to your saying just above that you do not agree with the theology that distinguishes Jews from Gentiles. Does it mean you don't agree with Jeremiah 46:28 and Matthew 10:5,6? The first says, "But you have no fear My Servant Jacob for I am with you. I will make an end of all the nations among which I have banished you, but I will not make an end of you! I will not leave you unpunished though, but I will chastise you in measure. That's a distinction the Lord makes between Gentiles and Israel. And for Matthew 10:5,6 every time Jesus sent his disciples to spread the gospel of salvation he would warn them not to go the way of the Gentiles especially Samaritans. What do you say about the distinction Jesus made between Gentiles and Jews?
In Matthew 10:5-6 Jesus sent for the first time His apostles to Jews only. However, later He sent them into all the world (Matthew 28:19-20; John 11:51-52; Acts 1:8; Ephesians 2:11-22).
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