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drstevej

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What difference does it make what the Greek text says? We speak English round here and we have a KJ Bible which is an absolutely accurate translation of the living word of God so that we do not have to guess what God says.

So God gave English speaking folks a absolutely accurate translation and left every other language group to guess? I see.

The translators of the KJV did not consider themselves absolutely accurate nor did they consider a translation superior to the original (Greek & Hebrew).

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE TRANSLATORS.


  1. The ordinary Bible read in the Church, commonly called the Bishops' Bible, to be followed, and as little altered as the original will permit.
  2. The names of the prophets and the holy writers, with the other names in the text, to be retained, as near as may be, accordingly as they are vulgarly used.
  3. The old ecclesiastical words to be kept, as the word church, not to be translated congregation.
  4. When any word hath divers significations, that to be kept which hath been most commonly used by the most eminent fathers, being agreeable to the propriety of the place and the analogies of faith.
  5. The division of chapters to be altered either not at all, or as little as may be, if necessity so require.
  6. No marginal notes at all to be affixed, but only for the explanation of the Hebrew or Greek words, which cannot, without some circumlocution, so briefly and fitly be expressed, in the text.
  7. Such quotations of places to be marginally set down as shall serve for the fit reference of one Scripture to another.
  8. Every particular man of each company to take the same chapter or chapters; and, having translated or amended them severally by himself where he thinks good, all to meet together to confirm what they have done, and agree for their part what shall stand.
  9. As any one company hath dispatched any one book in this manner, they shall send it to the rest, to be considered of seriously and judiciously; for his Majesty is very careful on this point.
  10. If any company, upon the review of the book so sent, shall doubt or differ upon any places, to send them word thereof, to note the places, and therewithal to send their reasons; to which if they consent not, the difference to be compounded at the general meeting, which is to be of the chief persons of each company, at the end of the work.
  11. When any place of special obscurity is doubted of, letters to be directed by authority to send to any learned man in the land for his judgment of such a place.
  12. Letters to be sent from every bishop to the rest of his clergy, admonishing them of this translation in hand, and to move and charge as many as, being skillful in the tongues, have taken pains in that kind, to send their particular observations to the company, either at Westminster, Cambridge, or Oxford, according as it was directed before in the king's letter to the archbishop.
  13. The directors in each company to be the Deans of Westminster and Chester, for Westminster, and the king's professors in Hebrew and Greek in the two universities.
  14. These translations to be used, when they agree better with the text than the Bishops' Bible: Tyndale's, Coverdale's, Matthew's [Rogers'], Whitchurch's [Cranmer's], Geneva."
  15. By a later rule, "three or four of the most ancient and grave divines, in either of the universities, not employed in translating, to be assigned to be overseers of the translation, for the better observation of the fourth rule."
 
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JDS

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What is it about Ephesians 2 that you need for the Greek to make plainer?
 
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nobdysfool

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What is it about Ephesians 2 that you need for the Greek to make plainer?

What is it about blind adherence to the KJV that you refuse to see? You disrespect those who know and can work with the Greek, when it is clearly obvious that you do not know Greek. That is plainly evidenced by your attitude toward it.

Just another brick on the pile....
 
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oworm

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The question is not about the integrity of translations. "All translators are traitors" (quote?)and every translation compromises simply because of inflectional differences. Something is always lost in translation and that is why we need to look at the original languages and mine their depths and dig out the gold therein. Otherwise there would be no need for seminaries and no need for expositors.

The question here is about the integrity of a claim that was made by the OP that:

Van said:
Ephesians 2:8 does not say faith is a gift of God. Greek grammar precludes that interpretation, yet it is posted again and again, as if truth does not matter. Salvation is not of ourselves, it is a gift of God through our faith in Christ.

The question is. Can the claim that is made above be substantiated by the OP, based on the implication that the authors knowledge of NT greek can demonstrate, that the greek grammar of Ehesians 2:8 precludes the interpretation that faith is a gift from God?

Lets not lose sight of the question here!
 
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JDS

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No, I observe that he wrote the NT in Greek but the writers were Hebrews. They could speak and write in Hebrew but they did not because the gospel message was not just to the Hebrews but to the world and the world spoke Greek and the gospel was going west. I know this from reading the book of Acts and from my study of church history. When the gospel got as far west as it could get, the westerners spoke English and English was to become the language of the world. Therefore God translated it into the worlds language and the missionaries have been largely from the English speaking nations. If you know some great missionary and evangelistic movements from among the Semetic or Hametic peoples of the earth, other than the apostles themselves, please inform me about them.


We do have the record of Origen, the Egyptian, who greatly influenced Augustine but we get all of our false doctrine from Egypt because Egypt is a type of the world. Even the Alexandrian Texts that underlie all the corrupt bible versions comes from there. So, I guess one could say that Calvinism had a connection to Egypt through the writings of Augustine and it seems to me that some reformed are the ones who are the most zealous for the new bible versions. The correct texts came from Antioch, the headquarters for the missionary activities of the great apostle Paul to the gentiles (See the book of Acts from chapter 13 on). Our KJV was translated from these texts. It can be trusted!
 
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oworm

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JDS said:
we get all of our false doctrine from Egypt because Egypt is a type of the world. Even the Alexandrian Texts that underlie all the corrupt bible versions comes from there. So, I guess one could say that Calvinism had it's roots in Egypt

JDS I will allow you some time to edit your post before I report it as you are in clear violation of forum rules yet again!
 
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drstevej

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You might want to broaden your historical studies beyond Jack Chick tracts.

You confuse God with the translation committee, and as I have demonstrated the translation committee were under no delusions that they were infallible.


BTW, the father of the Modern Missions Movement, William Carey, was a Calvinist.
 
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oworm

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Ephesians 2:8 does not say faith is a gift of God. Greek grammar precludes that interpretation, yet it is posted again and again, as if truth does not matter. Salvation is not of ourselves, it is a gift of God through our faith in Christ.

Van, It seemed apparent from your statement above that what you posted was out of a pre existent knowledge of the greek text? All I am asking is that you show from your own understanding of the greek grammar how the text of Ehp 2:8 precludes the interpretation that faith is a gift from God?

I am only asking that you substantiate your claim by referring to the greek grammar itself and showing from your own parsing of the text what you believe to be the correct exegesis. As a self proclaimed student of greek-implicit from your claim- you should be able to do that!

Why would you not be willing to do that since you yourself made the claim? Why would you not be willing to go to the greek text which is the closest to the original autograph that we have and substantiate your claim authoritively and exegetically? I would have thought this would be a golden opportunity to show decisivly and irrefutably from the infallible and inerrant word of God that faith is not a gift from God? Surely that would end the argument right here and now and leave the rest of us struck dumb in the face of truth?

Can you stand behind your claim Van and show from your knowledge of the greek text (A knowledge that you implicitly claimed to posses) that faith as a gift from God is precluded from Eph2:8?
 
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JDS

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JDS I will allow you some time to edit your post before I report it as you are in clear violation of forum rules yet again!

First,

What do you disagree with - That Egypt is a type of the world
That Origen was from Egypt
That the Alexandian texts came from there
That Augustine was influenced by Origen
My implication that Calvin was influenced by Augustine and therefore Calvinism has a connection to Egypt though him

Be specific and I will consider your request. What offends you?
 
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nobdysfool

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Sounds like something Peter Ruckman would say. Are you a Ruckmanite?



Where do you get this stuff?? The lack of logic and the obvious grasping at straws is nothing short of appalling! And you want people to view you as a Theologian???

JDS, the first rule, when you find yourself in a hole, is to STOP DIGGING!!!
 
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JDS

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Ps 19:13 Keep back thy servant also from presumptuous [sins]; let them not have dominion over me: then shall I be upright, and I shall be innocent from the great transgression.

I have given no hint that my understanding comes from Jack Chick tracts.

He did not believe most of what modern hypers believe. He certainly did not believe the modern ordo salutis that has a man needing to get saved in order to believe.
 
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JDS

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A Ruckmanite, are you kidding?

I find myself in no hole. I do notice that you offer very little of substance in your posts!
 
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nobdysfool

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Folks, Let's keep our eye on the ball here, and ignore JDS and his attempts to hijack the thread.

The question has been put forth, and a request made, for a certain poster to parse the Greek in Ephesians 2 and demonstrate his contention that Faith is not a gift of God. Let's focus on that, and ignore the flack and noise from the anti-Calvinist who wants to derail this thread.
 
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JDS

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drstevej

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Let's get back to soteriology.

Seems like there are questions that our non-Calvinistic friends have not answered. We surely would not wan these to just be swept back and forgotten.

Van, you're up...
 
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oworm

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drstevej

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Don't bite folks!


Let's get back to soteriology.

Seems like there are questions that our non-Calvinistic friends have not answered. We surely would not wan these to just be swept back and forgotten.

Van, you're up...

Three times... darn they have to answer!

*Austin Power Rule*
 
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frumanchu

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What is it about Ephesians 2 that you need for the Greek to make plainer?

To what does the pronoun "it" refer in the verse? In this case, the Greek language provides much more information than the English.

Such is the case with 1 Tim 6:10 too, as I pointed out.
 
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