Hi New Dawn, because the pronoun ("that") is in the neuter gender, it can refer back to a conceptual antecedent. D. Wallace explains all this in Greek Grammar, Beyond the Basics. The conceptual antecedent is salvation by grace through faith. Salvation is the gift in view, and salvation is not of ourselves, it is a gift of God.
D. Wallace also explains why the argument presented by Kuyper is without merit, see pages 334 and 335.
Every time you see a Calvinist express the idea that Ephesians 2:8 supports its false doctrine of the gift of faith, know that Calvinism is thus supported by faulty understanding of the text.
Are you deliberately avoiding my question?
YOU claimed that the greek grammar precludes the interpretation that faith is a gift from God. All I am asking is that you substantiate the claim that
YOU made. Can you do that without appealing to second had knowledge? Why dont you at least quote from your source material as is normal debating proceedure when citing sources other than your self?
Folks
Van claimed in his own words that the greek grammar of Ephesians 2:8 precludes that faith is a gift from God. All I am asking is that he shows
FROM HIS OWN SELF PROCLAIMED UNDERSTANDING of the text, that he parse his way through the text and shows us how he arrives at his assertion. He claimed his knowledge by implication before any mention of any other source.
Folks
Please note that I am giving Van the opportunity to uphold his debating integrity and maintain his dignity by asking him to validate his claims. He can either do that or retract his statement and humbly admit that he has little or insufficient knowledge of the greek text of Ephesians save that which he has gleaned from secondary sources.
Here are Vans assertions
Van said:
Ephesians 2:8 does not in the slightest suggest faith is a gift of God, based on Greek Grammar
Van said:
D. Wallace, a Calvinist of integrity, simply says whether faith is a gift of God or not, you cannot support the idea from Ephesians 2:8, or words to that effect.
"Words to that effect" are an insufficient citation. If you are going to cite a source you must quote the source verbatim. If you are willing to post longwinded assertions from your own mind then surely you will take the time to quote extensively from a source that you cite in support of your assertion!
FOLKS
Here again is Vans original assertion;
Van said:
Ephesians 2:8 does not say faith is a gift of God. Greek grammar precludes that interpretation, yet it is posted again and again, as if truth does not matter. Salvation is not of ourselves, it is a gift of God through our faith in Christ.
And here are the specific posts that apply to this part of the discussion
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49073107&postcount=605
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49074429&postcount=607
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49074612&postcount=608
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49074728&postcount=609
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49074917&postcount=612
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49075418&postcount=613
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49075581&postcount=614
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49075904&postcount=616
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49085208&postcount=623
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=49085208&postcount=623
And here again is my response to Vans assertion;
Van, It seemed apparent from your statement above that what you posted was out of a pre existent knowledge of the greek text? All I am asking is that you show
from your own understanding of the greek grammar how the text of Ehp 2:8 precludes the interpretation that faith is a gift from God?
I am only asking that you substantiate
your claim by referring to the greek grammar itself and showing from
your own parsing of the text what you believe to be the correct exegesis. As a self proclaimed student of greek-implicit from your claim- you should be able to do that!
Why would you not be willing to do that since you yourself made the claim? Why would you not be willing to go to the greek text which is the closest to the original autograph that we have and substantiate your claim authoritively and exegetically? I would have thought this would be a golden opportunity to show decisivly and irrefutably from the infallible and inerrant word of God that faith is not a gift from God? Surely that would end the argument right here and now and leave the rest of us struck dumb in the face of truth?
Can you stand behind your claim Van and show from
your knowledge of the greek text (A knowledge that you implicitly claimed to posses) that faith as a gift from God is precluded from Eph2:8?