One of scientific creationism's loudest claims is that it takes Scripture "at face value". Whatever that means. As we shall see shortly, all this means is that all the work of interpreting has actually happened, but been swept under the carpet - scientism's footprints are exceedingly light in a culture where it rules. But the reason this increases its appeal greatly is that such an arrangement
seems to put the power back into the hands of the reader to interpret Scripture. Creationism isn't just Scripture at face value, it's Scripture at
my face value, and if I disagree with another interpretation I can simply say that they are interpreting and adding layers where I am not! I believe this kind of subjective, individualized relativist license in interpreting Scripture is the main source of creationism's appeal.
However, something that is not appreciated is that the meaning of Scripture is
underdetermined. I mean that both in a mathematical sense, and something deeper. In the mathematical sense, underdetermination is like my saying:
"3x + 4y = 1985, hence find x and y."
one linear equation for two variables means that there is no way to specifically determine their values, you need another simultaneous equation to solve for x and y. But there is underdetermination at a deeper level as well:
how do you know I was asking you a math question? For all you know, this may be an arcane cypher for:
"How many elephants, x, and how many hippopotamuses, y, did the Malaysian National Zoo have in 1985?"
The question I asked does not form a complete information system in and of itself; in fact, it requires a vast amount of background knowledge to process (besides that niggling second equation). You need to know the properties of real numbers, the addition binary operator, concepts of additive identities and inverses, and equality before you can even begin to approach the question. Yet none of it seems to come from outside the question: you don't seem to need external knowledge to know that you are finding two numbers, which when multiplied by 3 and 4 respectively, add up to 1985. And yet the question never told you as much. The only reason the question seems so intuitively to ask for that is because the question is processed within the framework of mathematical questioning which is so deeply ingrained that you don't even realize it, like someone going around thinking everything in the world is a shade of red because it really is when they actually have rose-tinted glasses on.
In the same way, Scripture is not a self-complete information system, and so it is impossible to consistently interpret Scripture by Scripture alone. Here is an obvious example: can someone who knows no English read my English Bible? Obviously not! He's going to need an English dictionary and years of English training before he can even begin to understand my English Bible. And yet I thought Scripture was supposed to be interpreted by Scripture alone; I'm not supposed to need a dictionary and years of English knowledge to read it; if the Bible is really self-sufficient for its own interpretation anybody should be able to read it even if they've never seen an English word in their life, they should just "let Scripture interpret Scripture" instead of letting the external information of the dictionary interpret Scripture.
This is easy to see - that language is always used to interpret Scripture, and the meaning of the Bible can never be independent of the meaning of, say, the Oxford Dictionary. What may be harder to see, especially to people not accustomed to seeing it, is that
science is also
always used to interpret Scripture in the same way that language always is. For
both sides of the debate. Even if the creationists
won't admit it. How do creationists get away with the very same thing they try to indict the other side for? By trying to split science down the middle into acceptable science, or "common sense" in the context of this issue, which is apparently self-evident enough to not be called science and thus to be used to interpret Scripture, and unacceptable science, or simply "science" in the context of this issue, which is too technical and wordy and difficult for the average person to understand and therefore shouldn't be used to interpret Scripture. In other words, an arbitrary schism is created in science (as described in the last post) where some science is applicable to Scripture and some is not. Note again the consumeristic nature of creationism's relativist tendencies: if
I understand it then Scripture can be interpreted by it; if
I can't understand it then it can't be used. The ultimate criterion for truth and orderly interpretation has come to rest in the mind of the reader, when by every logical argument it should rest in the mind of the writer.
Here are a few examples of how science conditions our interpretation of Scripture:
1. Elijah's duel with the prophets of Baal on Mount Carmel. When Elijah requests for his altar to be doused with bucket upon bucket of water, we all "know" that he is making the challenge to God Yahweh much harder and therefore much more impressive. But are we told anywhere
in Scripture that water doesn't burn? Not really, are we? So to make the interpretation we have to refer to
science. And if we changed the science we change the interpretation. If God had made a world where water burns readily, and we read that Elijah had doused his altar with water, we wouldn't call it a miracle - we would have accused Elijah of cheating!
2. Jesus walks on water. Recently a scientist said that weather conditions on the Lake of Galilee could have caused the formation of a subsurface layer of ice upon which Jesus could have walked to His disciples and appeared to have made a miracle. Some people objected that putting science into the interpretation like that wrecked Scripture's record of a perfectly legit miracle. However, as much as science tells us that a man can walk on ice, isn't it
also science which has told Christians for the past 2,000 years that man can't walk on water and therefore that Jesus doing so was a miracle? And if the scientist wants to "demystify" Jesus that isn't science's job or role - it's his own implicit beliefs coming out to the fore, and science is only a tool for him to push his agenda. In any case, if we were to somehow quote this incident to water striders they wouldn't see anything extraordinary -
they walk on water all the time!
What about in origins? Well, the most blatant usage of science in interpreting Scripture is in refuting local flood interpretations. AFAIK when most staunch YECs are asked why Scripture doesn't support a local flood, one of the first few objections would be that Genesis 7:20 says that "The waters rose and covered the mountains to a depth of more than twenty feet.", and how can a local flood rise 20 feet above all the mountains in the area? Without even addressing the interpretive challenges I think the entrance of science into the interpretation should be extremely obvious. Nowhere
in Scripture are we told that water cannot rise 20 feet above mountains and stay there. In fact the exact same type of miracle (of keeping water suspended against gravity, albeit on a smaller scale) seems to have happened three other times in the OT: at the crossing of the Red Sea, the crossing of the Jordan, and the departure of Elijah. So hey, why not here too? It isn't the Bible which tells us water can't behave that way, it is
science, and if science is so vilified elsewhere in creationist thought why is it being used as a pivotal proof here?
Here's a central AiG site listing
objections to the local flood. Note how many of them are scientific objections:
If the Flood were local, why did Noah have to build an Ark? He could have walked to the other side of the mountains and escaped. Traveling just 20 km per day, Noah and his family could have traveled over 3,000 km in six months. God could have simply warned Noah to flee, as He did for Lot in Sodom.
If the Flood were local, why was the Ark big enough to hold all the different kinds of land vertebrate animals in the world? If only Mesopotamian animals were aboard, or only domestic animals, the Ark could have been much smaller.
If the Flood were local, why did God send the animals to the Ark to escape death? There would have been other animals to reproduce those kinds even if they had all died in the local area. Or He could have sent them to a non-flooded region.
If the Flood were local, why would birds have been sent on board? These could simply have winged across to a nearby mountain range. Birds can fly several hundred kilometers in one day.
If the Flood were local, how could the waters rise to 15 cubits (8 meters) above the mountains (Gen. 7:20)? Water seeks its own level. It could not rise to cover the local mountains while leaving the rest of the world untouched.
Noah and company were on the Ark for one year and 10 days (Gen. 7:11, 8:14)surely an excessive amount of time for any local flood? It was more than seven months before the tops of any mountains became visible. How could they drift around in a local flood for that long without seeing any mountains?
Ironically the article ends on a high note:
A universal worldwide, globe-covering Flood is clearly taught by the Bible. The only reasons for thinking the Flood was otherwise come from outside the Bible. When we use the framework provided by the Bible we find that the physical evidence from the rocks and fossils beautifully fits what the Bible says. (emphasis added)
but hey, half the reasons for thinking the Flood was
global also come from outside the Bible.
This can be perplexing to people who don't understand the consumeristic, relativist creationist paradigm. Why is some science ok to use to interpret the Bible, and some science not? The answer is that in a combination of scientism and exaltation of personal understanding, whatever science is easy enough to be understood by a person in modern scientism-flavoured culture becomes nearly axiomatic in truth and therefore its use never even registers as being motivated by science. In the same way that you don't see any problem with instantly interpreting 3x + 4y = 1985 as being answerable to mathematics, since you understand it so well, they don't see any problem with instantly interpreting Scripture as being answerable to science - whatever science they understand well. The science of Newton's laws of force and gravitation (which are necessary for the 15 cubit proof scientifically) seem intuitive and are therefore legit; the science of evolution seems too far removed and too dogmatically preached so it must be wrong to use it to interpret Scripture. But there is no qualitative difference between choosing an interpretation because of Newton and choosing an interpretation because of Darwin, other than the difference inside the interpreter's head - which is paramount to the attractiveness of the scientific myth of creationism.
[yes, I know somebody is bound to ask me about miracles. Working on it, though it won't be an exposition on scientific creationism per se.]