Take notes, Frumy, see, admitting things isn't so hard.
I cannot admit what I have always freely stated.
All known observations were in the known present universe,
Yes, that is the point. We can only experiance this 'known universe'.
What's to focus on? I am reading the ramblings of a child who seems to have no grasp of independant thought, conventional definitions and the application thereof, or even basic logic.
That is a funny bit of uncoherant babble.
Correction:
2) It is a logical assumption because it is the most probable, thanks to it's supporting evidence, its parsimony, etc.
It is complicated as ***, that's why it takes a life time almost to learn, and even then, most of what they learn is no longer valid with the changes!
Nonsense. All humans are born with instincts that are based on the assumption that the physical laws aren't going to up and change on them. It does not take 'years to learn'. I'd wager that it is your assumption that takes years to grasp (if 'goddidit' is indeed grasping a concept)
After the flood, you mean, or, more specifically after the split. I agree.
Good. Now, tell me why we should discount the conclusion drawn from this?
Try stuffing the universe in a magic hat for us, forget a microscopic speck. Even if you do that, I will believe.
Why? The assumption is that the physical laws are immutable. Why is this impossible?
Not lately, it is too well proven.
Nonsense. It is but one religion among many, with no redeeming features or particularily unique ideologies. It is in no way 'proven'.
Intuition now, is how far you have fallen back in a desperate attempt to paint the same past myth as somewhat scientific! Amazing.
You forget:
Counter-intuitiveness does not constitute counter evidence, but intuitiveness does constitute supporting evidence.
Well, you certainly have berated our beliefs, and the bible, and God, etc, as if you were better. Don't you remember somewhere, saying, for example, that you were better than God??
Indeed. Under my moral code, I am magnificently better than your god and/or the god of the Bible. However, we are not talking about me, we are talking about an assumption.
Tell me how the assumption is sanctimonious.
It is belief based, but no a belief in God.
It is neither. It is an assumption based on human experiance. It is not a faith statement. It makes no mention of theology, so it is unreligious.
"Mythology, mythography, or folkloristics. In these academic fields, a myth (mythos) is a sacred story concerning the origins of the world or how the world and the creatures in it came to have their present form. The active beings in myths are generally gods and heroes. Myths often are said to take place before recorded history begins. "
"A myth, in popular use, is something that is widely believed but false"
"Something that is mythic is thought to contain story elements similar to mythology."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Myth
The shoe fits. Wear it.[/quote]
Did you even read your own definitions? The last one is simply a etymological tautology, the second requires it to be false (something you have not yet demonstrated, or indeed demonstrable), and it does not a 'sacred story' detailing the origin(s) of the world and/or the creatures therein.
Now you are getting silly.
No, I am merely criticising your statements. You said:
[The 'same past' assumption'] is an impossible ... myth based on pure assumption.
It is a first-degree assumption, a fundamentally supported but intrinsically unprovable premise.
The same past is assumed.
I just pray to whatever god is listening that you have the same definition of 'assumption' as me; lord knows you have radical definitions of 'spiritual', 'physical', 'science', 'scientific', and 'evidence'.
Although one could probably list some assumptions like that there was no creator in there somewhere.
The 'same past' assumption may conflict with
your personal theology, but it most certainly does not reject
all theologies.
I'm sorry? That is the best retort you can come up with? I simply stated the definition of 'scientifically valid':
It is scientifically valid, since it passes the scientific method.
I don't reject the supposed ancestors of yours. I simply pointed out that my billions of actual, intelligent, real people witnesses were better than your army of worms and other organisms as witnesses!
You have
no witnesses, let alone billions! Show me
one other person who assumes that the physical laws are mutable and/or have been changed. Show me your billions.
It's wrong. God interacts and angels, and the departed believers. They are seperate from the physical world at the moment. I kid you not.
You heard it here first, folks. Dad, along with his god, trump logic, reason, and
de dicto necessary truths. Go back to kindergarten.
No, it has to do with the non physical. I have to tell you this???
OK, so you define the spiritual as 'non-physical'. What, then, do you define as 'physical'?
Either way you shake it, you have no proof and admit it.
And neither do you. Jeez.
Logical probability. Occam's Razor posits that we assume the more probable of two otherwise identicle theories.
Guess you missed it. Whooosh.
No.
I said:
No such thing. The Bible is a religious set of documents of questionable validity. It is is not a 'case', great or otherwise.
You said:
Let me straighten you out there, despite your inabilty to realize it is a case, and the best case on earth. That is the case.
Where, exactly, have you straightened me out? Or, perhaps your idea of correction is to simply state your claim again and again?
How many recorded observations are there from before the split?? None. That negates your point.
Nonsense, it is exactly my point. All we have are observations under unchanging physical laws. The
only reason you assume the past operated under some different physical laws is because it is the onoly way to keep your Bible from being disproved. The Bible
cannot be literally true under our current physical laws, so you simply reject them.
No, we are the forever crowd, that is set free from the box of death.
Quite.
Fair enough, In Israel, God's people, in the old testament,
Way to reject your own sacred text there, dad.
All of the Old Testament was written by/for your god's people. Should we reject it then, since it's not for us?
Did they gallop all over creation killing pagan sodomites as well?? No.
Not the point. The Bible explicitly states that practicing homosexuals should be killed. It does not say, 'Oh, this only applies to the Israeli Jew, and is negated once Emmanuel is born'.
Does that old stuff apply after Jesus? No.
Why not? Are you saying that the Bible negates itself?
Nope. It was about a 100 years after that in the days of Peleg, when the earth was divided. You are close, though.
And how do you know that? Also, if it wasn't the flood that changed the laws of physics, then what did?
We cannot have a reasonable discussion about anything in your 'different past' scenario, so I'll stop here.
He resorted to a flood, because man was so bad, they had to be stopped. That was a good thing. He also saved the men and animals, so we could start all over.
No, I meant, why a
flood? Why not just pop all the bad and naughty men out of existance?
Show me one common assumption that is unscientific (not the 'same past' assumption; it goes without saying, but I wouldn't put it past you to use it).
Ok, thanks.
Your assumption is just as baseless as mine. Do not pretend otherwise.
--you
You have, once again, missed the point. Oh well.
Tell me why you have no science to support a same past?
If you refuse to answer my questions, I refuse to answer yours.
You think that baseless => unscientific. Why?