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Ok. Start by proving that objective morality exists and we can go from there.Yes, it is.
From the OP:
(emphasis added)
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Ok. Start by proving that objective morality exists and we can go from there.Yes, it is.
From the OP:
(emphasis added)
Ok. Start by proving that objective morality exists and we can go from there.
See that's what I've been saying about your argument not fitting in with this one. Sapiens needs to prove all of those premises to reach that conclusion, but yours just shows two possibilities and makes you pick. I still find your stance fascinating, and viable in that I would have to choose between believing in one or the other, but it would require an entirely different argument to prove that God exists, and that He has some objective purpose for us to make your argument prove that objective morals exist.Ok. Start by proving that objective morality exists and we can go from there.
Page 25 and still on square one, I see.
.Firstly, it's not objective morality that's in question. It's 'objective moral values'. Values are only an aspect of moral philosophy, not the entirety, but that's the kind of confusion that results from your complete lack of epistemology
Secondly, you are the positive claimant. The burden of proof is yours. It will never not be yours. You haven't even coherently defined 'objective value' - which is a complete oxymoron - let alone met your burden.
See that's what I've been saying about your argument not fitting in with this one. Sapiens needs to prove all of those premises to reach that conclusion, but yours just shows two possibilities and makes you pick. I still find your stance fascinating, and viable in that I would have to choose between believing in one or the other, but it would require an entirely different argument to prove that God exists, and that He has some objective purpose for us to make your argument prove that objective morals exist.
You know what? I totally missed that distinction too. I got all caught up arguing point to point that didn't make sense, I didn't think about what things, specifically, ought to be proved. Plus I came in here with all the expectations of a Craig fight that I've seen so many times, I expected it to go like that, and in some ways it did, some ways it didn't.Firstly, it's not objective morality that's in question. It's 'objective moral values'.
Then why phrase premise 2 in the way that Sapiens did? And isn't that how WLC does it as well? And isn't he the author? (I'm not 100% on that last question, but still pretty sure).But the moral arguement is not intended to prove or disprove the existence of God.
I don't know. From what I have studied. The moral argument does not prove that objective morality exists.Then why phrase premise 2 in the way that Sapiens did? And isn't that how WLC does it as well? And isn't he the author? (I'm not 100% on that last question, but still pretty sure).
WLC likes to charge atheists with acknowledging that torturing little children for fun is objectively immoral, so if he's the author, then you kind of hi-jacked this, haha.I don't know. From what I have studied. The moral argument does not prove that objective morality exists.
I found this:I don't know. From what I have studied. The moral argument does not prove that objective morality exists.
Haha. Well then..WLC likes to charge atheists with acknowledging that torturing little children for fun is objectively immoral, so if he's the author, then you kind of hi-jacked this, haha.
Well. I would argue that love is objectively morally good.I found this:
The moral argument for the existence of God has been stated in a variety of ways through the centuries. One way in which the basic argument has been worded is as follows (see Craig, n.d.; Craig and Tooley, 1994; Cowan, 2005, p. 166):
Premise 1: If God does not exist, then objective moral values do not exist.
Premise 2: Objective moral values exist.
Conclusion: God exists.
So Craig get's credit for phrasing it the way Sapiens does, but "through the centuries"? It could have had a lot of forms over time, but the way it is phrased here and Sapiens' way isn't your way. So I guess it's you and me versus Sapiens! Haha!
Objective moral value based on what standard? We talked about that.
I already proved it.
Find one thing you feel is objectively moral or immoral without God. All I have to do is find one person who disagrees to prove that moral to me subjective and meaningless.
Not at all. These are objections to moral argument, and how it fails to support your theology.
Agreed, but in this thread it has been conceded that your theology allows for serial killers to get a pass, and that those that disbelieve will be held accountable for things beyond their control (disbelief, and the "sins" of their [hypothetical] ancestors).
This is not "justice" and "morality" as the terms are used in the common vernacular.
It is not about what I like or agree with, but how the moral argument fails when applied to a theology that - by the same standard of morality being appealed to - is morally bankrupt.
Guilty of actions beyond their control.
Let's check your own moral compass: do you feel it to be moral to hold others for the actions of others, for for actions beyond their control?
That is for you to demonstrate. Once again, it is you who believes in the oxymoronic non-concept of 'objective value'.
No, you absolutely did not. You haven't even coherently defined 'objective value', let alone proved it.
I require no invocation of Yahweh or any other imaginary being to have them.
Whereas, values are necessarily subjective. Even if Yahweh existed, it would not be the case that his values are somehow magically objective,
or that you'd even be able to discern what those values are given your lack of any epistemology whatsoever.
-You still have no means of discerning what those values are, even if you can coherently define them, given that your moral philosophy has no epistemology to speak of.
Once you're done with those issues, we can move on to any of the numerous other flaws.
Suppose that the axis powers had won the second world war and that the Nazi's exterminated everyone that was not a Nazi sympathizer so that the only people that existed on earth were those who thought that the systematic extermination of non-Germans was a good thing.
Would genocide still be a bad thing to engage in?
Reference my posts.
We never said you did.
Sure they would be. For they would be grounded in His moral commands, not our opinions and He would have the authority and ability to judge justly them that disobey Him.
The moral argument has nothing at all to do with
epistemology. Therefore, any mention of it is irrelevant.
The argument has nothing to do with epistemology. As such, your comment is irrelevant.
Yes. Regardless of what anyone thinks,.....
I really don't feel like explaining everything all over again. Just make your point or reread my posts.That is for you to demonstrate. Once again, it is you who believes in the oxymoronic non-concept of 'objective value'.
No, you absolutely did not. You haven't even coherently defined 'objective value', let alone proved it.
Thanks for proving my earlier point - you are stuck on square one.
You are still confusing standards with value. Standards - like wellbeing and harm - are objectively quantifiable. I require no invocation of Yahweh or any other imaginary being to have them.
Whereas, values are necessarily subjective. Even if Yahweh existed, it would not be the case that his values are somehow magically objective, or that you'd even be able to discern what those values are given your lack of any epistemology whatsoever.
So in summary,
-You still have not made any sense at all of the contradictory concept of 'objective value' - which I must reiterate once again, is your burden, and no one else's.
-You still have no means of discerning what those values are, even if you can coherently define them, given that your moral philosophy has no epistemology to speak of.
Once you're done with those issues, we can move on to any of the numerous other flaws.