Why is this really a problem? Like discussed before at least in the West, we have had to deal with quite a few heresies against the Eucharist, and this has forced us to a) name our belief, in contrast to the heresies; and b) explain to a greater detail what we believe. This is the method that the Church has used since the very beginning. Again using the example of the Doctrines of the Trinity and Incarnation. The journey taken by the Catholic Church is no different than the one taken concerning these two doctrines.
I do understand and sympathize that Catholicism has had to answer more heresies.
I'm not really sure that is the only reason. What about other doctrines we would consider developed? Does purgatory, limbo, the discussion about what happens to infants who die, the Immaculate Conception, papal infallibility, etc ... do these all exist in order to answer heresy? That might be too much a divergence for this thread, or might be a natural progression. To be honest, I don't sit around examining Catholic doctrine and dogma and trying to figure out where they originated and through what process. It is not my place to judge Catholicism, though I am interested in learning about it so that we can properly relate to one another.
But at least this maybe - what exactly were the heresies that necessitated the development/clarification of Eucharistic theology? And I'd really wish to know if the Orthodox answer is insufficient to answer those heresies. No offense, but if it is, then there would be no justification for developing doctrine.
Quite honestly the only difference between the doctrine of transubstantiation and what the early Fathers taught, is 1) We named the doctrine, and 2) we used different terminology to clarify the doctrine.
We can take it apart if you like, but I would disagree, because we affirm what the Fathers taught, but we cannot affirm everything Catholicism says.
Essentially they say that the bread and wine are changed to the Body and Blood during the Liturgy. End. Full stop. Nothing more.
Naming it wouldn't be a problem. Adding any extra explanation beyond what we are given would be, because to us it is necessarily speculation.
Two things here. 1) This is the pot calling the kettle black; and 2) I'm really not sure if the EO and OO do believe anything near to what we believe, that is the reason for the thread. The more we discuss this question, the more confused I get, as I'm really going back and forth on: 1) the doctrines of the EO and OO are just less developed than ours and they are just mad we got there first; 2) that you guys believe in a form of consubstantiation; 3) that you guys believe in a form of Calvinist view of the Eucharist; or 4) you really don't know what you believe, and you are mad at us for thinking that we do. Haven't decided yet. I am not saying these things to be insulting, but it is hard to consider anything else especially considering that there is such a big attempt to add things to our beliefs to argue against them.
It does unfortunately sound rather insulting, but I will try to clarify.
Firstly, no, we are not mad because Catholics did it first. Absolutely not. We consider it an error to try to explain the Mystery beyond what we know, so we can't be jealous that someone else got to error before we did. I hope that doesn't sound insulting in return, but you can dismiss that possibility.
And yes, we know exactly what we believe. It is repeated in every Divine Liturgy. We hear it over and over. You've had those posted here. And we've summarized them.
The bread and wine/water truly become the Body and Blood of our Risen Lord by the power of the Holy Spirit during the course of the Divine Liturgy. We pray for this to happen.
How this happens (other than by the power of the Holy Spirit), exactly when it happens, what it looks like or tastes like, in exactly what way it is changed (i.e. what we sense vs what we cannot sense), how long it remains so (except we do have reserved Eucharist for emergencies, and it can be pre-sanctified when necessary) ... we simply don't define, or concern ourselves with. We believe these things are a Mystery, and whatever we might speculate would be a guess. We might guess right, we might guess wrong, but how and why should we teach as if we know, or worse yet, reason our way to even MORE teaching based on that speculation which could be false for all we know?
For nearly thousands of years now we have received the Eucharist in just such a way, and miss nothing.
We don't believe explicitly in consubstantiation because that requires a defining of the Eucharist as well, just not the same defining as the Catholics do. We reject the very act of defining. We are not concerned so much to reject this particular definition or that particular definition - we reject defining, because the Fathers did not define it. Is this making sense?
That seems to be our difference. You seem to wish to lay out definitions, and insist that we must believe in one of them. Do you really not see that we reject the act of defining? I'm not trying to insult. I really do find a different way of thinking between east and west, and it was very difficult for me becoming Orthodox. I wanted everything explained too. It's what I come from, and how I was used to thinking. It took an actual paradigm shift (which took many months of immersion) to really understand. So I think maybe that's what you might not be able to understand. Again, no insult.
I'm not sure what definition of Calvinistic thought you think we might believe, but I imagine it falls into the categories of consubstatintiation and Catholic teaching, at best. If they have a Eucharistic belief, it us probably over-defined as well. If they don't have a Eucharistic belief, then we can't agree at all.
I'm not sure if this is helping.
By the way, one other possible difference. I've never asked, and as far as I know, we simply don't do it. But Catholics affirm that both the Body AND Blood are present in both bread and wine, so that one need not receive both. I'm not sure whether we can agree ... I've not asked. All that I do know is that we pray for the bread to become the Body, the wine to become the Blood, just as Christ said. I'm not sure we can affirm anything else or not. (I can see a reasoning for it, but again, in my understanding it may well go past what we have received and may be speculation - but I am not speaking for Orthodoxy on this since I have not asked. We always offer both so it never occurred to me to ask.)