Okay so now I take it you guys are trying to confuse the situation? One says it changes, another says it does not.
I'm not sure that this is the case. I won't pretend to speak for our friend OrthodoxyUSA or any EO poster here, but is it not at least possible that both or either may affirmed, all without recourse to the doctrine of transubstantiation? Again, you've been presented with liturgical texts from my (OO) tradition, and now more recently posts from All4Christ on this page providing patristic backing that says that it is the Body and Blood, by the direct action of the Holy Spirit. How much more conclusive can you get? We
all agree (you too) that this is what happens -- the difference is that the RCC has dogmatized what the OO and EO treat as a mystery. You are focusing on your particularly RC explanation of how this happens, whereas that's not a part of the equation for the people you are talking to. So, since that's not a part of the equation, maybe some believe that it might happen this way, whereas others believe something else. The key point is that
all believe in it, and nobody oversteps the boundaries of what they have been given in doing so.
Either the bread and wine becomes the Flesh and Blood of our Lord or it doesn't.
Or, again, it does and what is acceptable within your tradition to speculate on can make it possible to say either, depending on how exactly you mean it.
Becoming something else is whether you like it or not is a change.
Then a question you could be asking yourself is what it means to 'become something else.'
Is it not at least reasonable to say that Christ did not become other than what and Who He is by His taking flesh from the Theotokos? In my own tradition's liturgical prayers, we affirm this explicitly (
"Amen, amen, amen...I believe, I believe, I believe, and confess to the last breath that this is the life-giving flesh that Your Only-Begotten Son, our Lord, God, and Savior Jesus Christ took from our lady, the lady of us all, the holy Theotokos Saint Mary; He made it one with His divinity, without mingling, without, confusion, and without alteration"), which means that I cannot agree with what you have written as some kind of a priori philosophical principle.
And if that is agreeable (and of course I believe it should be, but I am talking about my own Church and its Orthodox faith, so I wouldn't necessarily expect anyone else to agree), then it is least
possible to say that the 'change' is not so much of a type that one might perceive it with their senses (as in the question you asked me earlier about what my eyes and tongue would perceive), but a truth which we humbly
submit to, whether we are intellectually satisfied in the process or not? Remember what Abba Anthony said about Abba Joseph in the saying I posted earlier:
"Abba Joseph has understood it, for he says 'I do said, not know'."
This is, I would hope you would understand, not a rejection of the use of the mind in any of this, but a proper understanding of what we can and what we cannot say in any definitive way regarding what happens by the Holy Spirit in our liturgies.