You can submit that all you like, my friend. But I do not believe there are any errors in the KJV. The word "forever" can be used as a colorful expression of strong emotion for the totality of an allotted time. It is a strong expression of emotion of totality. Sort of like how a man might say to his wife in love, "I am your husband forever." He is speaking in this life how he will be her wife "forever" and not for all time past death. For he knows he won't be her husband for all eternity because he knows death will separate them as husband and wife at some point.
In fact, we see the word "forever" clearly used in a temporal sense in
Philemon 1:15. For it says,
"For perhaps he therefore departed for a season, that thou shouldest receive him for ever;"
(
Philemon 1:15 KJV).
This is talking about Onesimus. Here is what it says in the New Living Translation,
15 "It seems you lost Onesimus for a little while so that you could have him back forever.
16 He is no longer like a slave to you. He is more than a slave, for he is a beloved brother, especially to me. Now he will mean much more to you, both as a man and as a brother in the Lord."
(
Philemon 1:15-16 NLT).
In other words, Onesimus did not return to his master for all eternity here upon this Earth. Onesimus is not still alive. He is not an immortal or anything of that nature. He was mortal and he died. So to assume that the word "forever" and it's related words always means forever does not work. Meaning, one has to re-examine what they believe the word "forever" means in relation to the Greek word "Gehenna", i.e. the Lake of Fire (Which is translated in the English as "hell").
...