Hi Benefactor:
The Topic is
“The Church – The Body of Christ” (
Eph. 4:12), but your reference below is to the
Kingdom “Bride” (
John 3:29)
“church” (
Matt. 18:17-18), or
Church #1 from my
“Two Churches” Thread here.
Matthew 16:18 "And I also say to you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build My church, and the gates of Hades shall not prevail against it.
Benefactor Commentary >> Jesus declares in this statement the His church does not exist. This means that His church did not exist during any time in the past.
No. Benefactor is declaring that Christ’s Kingdom Church does not exist for some strange reason on
“The Church – Body of Christ” Thread. Our Mystery
“Body of Christ” (Eph. 4:12)
“His Body” Church (
Col. 1:24) comes into existence with Paul’s conversion in
Acts 9:15-16 on the road to Damascus, which is
Church #2 saved by God’s grace through faith apart from works.
Ephesians 2:8-10. The Kingdom Church that Christ is talking about includes
‘disciples’ (
mathetes #3101 = used 269 times in the NT) that are saved by obeying the
“Gospel of the Kingdom” (
Matt. 4:23, 9:35) that John the Baptist is preaching in
Mark 1:4-5 and Jesus Christ is preaching as the “Gospel of God” in Mark 1:14-15. Just how many times does Paul use this term "mathetes" (disciple) in all of his Thirteen Epistles to the Gentiles combined? The answer is ZERO. :0)
“Now after John had been taken into custody, Jesus came into Galilee [
Matt. 4:17-23], preaching
the Gospel of God [Gospel of the Kingdom = #1], and saying,
"The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand [
Matt. 3:2, 4:17, 10:7]; repent and believe in
THE GOSPEL."
Mark 1:14-15.
For you to declare that this
“My Church” does not even exist is ridiculous, because Peter, John and James (
Matt. 10:2+)
are 'disciples' of the same Kingdom Church that begins right here in the Four Gospels. This Kingdom “Church” has already started in the time that Jesus Christ HAS His DISCIPLES, because
‘they’ (Peter, John, James, etc.) represent the
“called out assembly” (
Vine’s) being gathered by obeying the
GOSPEL OF GOD that
Jesus Christ IS PREACHING. We see that
“His disciples came to Him” in
Matthew 5:1, which means they have already been gathered by obeying the
“Gospel of the Kingdom” that Christ is preaching in Matthew 4:17-23. We see
“Jesus and His disciples” in
Mark 2:16*, with John’s disciples mentioned along with Christ’s disciples in Mark 2:18*; which tells us that Peter, John and James were SAVED to become part of the
“called out assembly” through
the ‘preaching’ of the “Gospel of God” going on back in Mark 1!!!
The church that exists prior to Jesus starting His church yet future of this verse was the church of the assembly of Israelites’.
We disagree! The Kingdom Church of the Four Gospels began with
JOHN/ELIJAH (
Matt. 11:13-14) who is
the “messenger/angel” of
Malachi 3:1+ appearing in the wilderness ahead of Jesus Christ. We know this to be
‘the truth’ (
John 5:31-33), because
the two disciples of John (Jn 1:35)
“followed Jesus” (
John 1:37) to become
“His disciples” (
John 2:2). Scripture says,
“This beginning of His signs Jesus did in Cana of Galilee, and manifested His glory,
and HIS DISCIPLES believed in Him. After this He went down to Capernaum, He and His mother and His brothers and
His disciples; and they stayed there a few days.”
John 2:11-12.
Since Jesus Christ has
“disciples” way back in John 1, then obviously
“My church” began right along with the
‘called out assembly’ in John 1!! The only way you can ‘start’ the
Kingdom “Bride” (John 3:29 = fulfills
Hosea 2:19-20) AFTER Matthew 16 is for Jesus Christ to begin preaching the
“Gospel of God” to gather His disciples
AFTER that point in Scripture, which renders your hypothesis FALSE. If you will check the Topic of this thread again, then we are supposed to be writing about
“The Church – BODY OF CHRIST” (
Church #2) that does not even start until Paul’s Conversion in Acts 9. :0)
In the Jewish church are both saved and lost.
The Jewish Church? :0) There is
no Hebrew/Aramaic term in the Old Testament translated into ‘church’ even once and the two terms
“Israel” and
“Church” DO NOT appear in the same verse anywhere in the New Testament either.
“The whole church” from
Acts 5:11 is the Kingdom
“Church in Jerusalem” (
Acts 8:1 = Church #1) that Paul persecuted before his conversion in Acts 9. Peter’s
Kingdom “Bride” Church (#1) is
“the church” that received Paul, Barnabas and Titus in
Acts 15:4 headed up by
Peter, John and James (
Gal. 2:9*) the
reputed pillars of
‘that’ called out assembly based in Jerusalem. Paul was sent to Jerusalem to
‘submit the gospel I preach among the Gentiles’ (Gal. 2:2*), because the disciples from Peter’s Kingdom “Bride” had no idea that the
“Dispensation of God’s Grace” (
Eph. 3:2 = 'IF you have heard') even existed and
“some of our number” (
Acts 15:24) from Peter’s Kingdom Church were
‘disturbing’ (
Gal. 1:6-7) the brethren from Paul’s Galatian Churches who obeyed his
“Gospel to the Uncircumcised” (Gal. 2:7 = Gospel #2).
In the body of Christ His church there are no lost.
What is up with the
‘no lost’ characterizations? :0) There is
no “Body of Christ” to even talk about in the Four Gospels, because
only Peter’s Kingdom “Bride” (Church #1) is called to exist through
the preaching of the “Gospel of the Kingdom” (
Gospel #1). You are confusing the
Kingdom Bride (Church #1) with
Paul’s Mystery “Body of Christ” (Church #2) without knowing the difference . . . again. :0)
In the local church are professing believers and real believers.
Professing and real? :0) Did you really get everything in Post #21 from
Matthew 16:18 from and interpretation of
“My church” that John the Baptist calls the
“Bride” (John 3:29)?? I would recommend a book called
“Things That Differ” from
C.R. Stam (
here = it is free online) for those among you trying to sort out
the differences between the ‘Two Churches’ of the New Testament. My rebuttal against the errors in Stam’s work can be seen on
this thread (
here), because Stam is right about some things ‘and’ dead wrong about others. :0)
In Christ Jesus,
Terral