- Jun 18, 2007
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There's always much in common.
Yes, I often find that (despite what internet boards may seem to indicate) when Orthodox and Catholics speak openly and honestly, we contribute more to one another than we detract. I am almost always enriched by my interactions with pious Catholics (even when we agree, respectfully, to disagree).
I think the "temporal" concept actually originated with Augustine. I've always associated it with the "punishment" described in Hebrews 12 -- that of the discipline of a Father, which no one finds pleasant at the time, but is necessary to make us holy. It is "temporal" in that one day its work will be complete.
I'm not familiar with Augustine saying that, but am open to correction as I've not read the bulk of Augustine's actual writings. Unlike Anselm, much of my knowledge of Augustine is from secondary sources (aside from "City of God" which I have read in part and found largely agreeable).
I think that applies to just about all topics.
Yeah. That's aptly put.
I do think, though, that we can speak about views as being developed at given points of time (i.e. there is a point in time when the Trinitarian language of the Church gained its present complexity and nuance) - and that it is fair for me to look to the high middle ages (i.e. 11th c. & later) as the time when, for the RCC, the complexity and nuance surrounding purgatory came to be.
Is that fair? I'm not trying to craft any argument out of this; I just see that as the time when the doctrine starts to show up in a lot more theological texts and in councils and such. If I recall, there was a controversy not long prior to the 11th c. (or shortly thereafter... eh, my history is weak at this point) that spurred a lot of the debate around purgatory and caused (not unlike the Trinitarian debates) an increased complexity / nuance of thought to develop.
Also, I would say your view of temporal sin is in line with how I hear the RCC using it today, but the "transactional" view did seem to be common in the high middle ages. It may have been an erroneous application of the temporal / eternal dichotomy, but am I way off base in my read of the late medieval's thought? Here's where I really should go and grab a copy of Summa Theologica and look up Thomist thought (just to check that I'm not totally mis-reading the time period)...
It's not an intermediary state though, at least not if you mean intermediary between heaven and hell. It's a transitionary state of final purification for those who've been judged for heaven.
Intermediary as in "between our death and the last judgment / general resurrection." As I understand it, both our churches believe in hades (the realm of death) and paradise (where the saints reside) as disembodied states in which the souls of the departed exist while awaiting general resurrection into the new body and the final decisions of last judgment. The doctrine of purgatory teaches a third such intermediary state, so that souls wait either in hades, purgatory, or paradise between their death here and the general resurrection. Concievably, as I understand it, the souls in purgatory don't wait there the entire time, but can be cleansed and enter paradise with the saints even before the general resurrection.
This is an interesting quote I found, and I think it is probably absolutely correct:
Anselm did not teach penal substitution. Yes, he brought to prominence the vocabulary of satisfaction, which became important in later formulations. But in Anselms feudal thought-world, it was Gods honour that needed to be satisfied by substitutionary obedience, not his justice by substitutionary penalty. Thus his omission from our list of those who have endorsed penal substitution was not accidental.
I would agree with this - satisfactionalism (I still kind of like "transactionalism" for him) fits better. That was one thing I was surprised to find when reading him - God's "wrath" is quite absent from his description of the necessity of the cross. He is far more concerned with what we owe to God.
It's from a book called "Pierced for Our Transgressions" in which the case is attempted that the early church fathers actually taught penal substitution.
Eh, I really don't see that. I DO see saints like St. Irenaeus talking about obedience (the disobedience of the first tree is undone by the obedience of the second tree).
The view of "substitutionary" atonement as being that where the substitution is Christ's obedience for our disobedience is in line with the Catholic view. But not substitution to receive our punishment.
Interesting. Could you explain this in the context of "eternal penalty" (as you did with "temporal penalty" above)?
I personally have always loved and identified with the word reparation more than satisifaction.
That we definitely have in common.
It is also often used in Catholic terminology -- Christ makes reparation for our sins. At it's root is the concept of "repair" for damage done. We all know we need to repair the damage done for our sins to the best of our ability. We repay those we've cheated. We have an obligation to do everything in our power to repair another person's reputation if we've harmed it. But we also know we can rarely if ever fully repair the damage our sin causes. Christ's willing offering of Himself to the Father provides reparation in abundance -- enough to repair all of Creation, even better than the original.
Could you unpack how, in your view, the cross makes this reparation? I'm curious
In Christ,
Macarius
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