You think Jews keep a copy of the Christian bible in their homes? Not hardly. And they believe that everything in
Daniel 9 has already been fulfilled.
Why are you thinking in a box ? I am speaking about Who Israel will be when the 42 Month Reign of the Beast comes, they will have accepted the Messiah, Jesus, as their God. It doesn't matter what they have thought for 2000-3000 years, only what thy think at the time of the AoD.
How does a forced peace agreement on Israel cause a falling away in Christianity? There is no mention of a "peace" agreement in
Daniel 9. There is nothing about "peace" in the text.
The Church will not be on earth for the Abomination of Desolation (AoD) or the Forced Agreement. We understand it is a Forced Peace Agreement because of Scriptures. (NIV) Daniel 8:He will cause deceit to prosper, and he will consider himself superior. When
they feel secure, he will destroy many ( KJV says by Peace he destroys many) and take his stand against the Prince of princes. Yet he will be destroyed, but not by human power.
The "Falling Away" is a bad teaching IMHO, it means a Departure [of the church]. 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is evidence of a Pre-Trib Rapture because it states that “the day of the Lord” (The Tribulation and Millennium) will not occur until “the apostasy comes first.” How does this relate to the timing of the Rapture ? Because the word, “apostasy” can also mean “departure.” And thus, this verse could be saying that the departure of the Church must occur before “the man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed and the Tribulation begins. Lets delve into this further.............
The Greek noun,
apostasia, is used only twice in the New Testament. The other occurrence is in
Acts 21:21 where it states that an accusation was made against Paul that he was “teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake [
apostasia] Moses.”
The word is used in verb form a total of 15 times in the New Testament, and only three of these have anything to do with a departure from the faith (
Luke 8:13,
1 Timothy 4:1, and
Hebrews 3:12). In other settings, the word is used for departing from iniquity (
2 Timothy 2:19),
departing from ungodly men (
1 Timothy 6:5), departing from the temple (
Luke 2:27), departing from the body (
2 Corinthians 12:8),
and departing from persons (
Acts 12:10 and
Luke 4:13).
This insight about the use and meaning of the word is certainly compelling, but the best argument that is most convincing to me is that the first seven English translations of the Bible rendered the noun,
apostasia, as either “departure” or “departing.” They were as follows:
- The Wycliffe Bible (1384)
- The Tyndale Bible (1526)
- The Coverdale Bible (1535)
- The Cranmer Bible (1539)
- The Great Bible (1540)
- The Beeches Bible (1576)
- The Geneva Bible (1608)
It also needs to be noted that the Bible used by the Western world from 400 AD to the 1500's — Jerome’s Latin translation known as “The Vulgate” — rendered
apostasia with the Latin word,
discessio, which means “departure.”
The first translation of the word to mean apostasy in an English Bible did not occur until 1611 when the King James Version was issued. So, why did the
King James translators introduce a completely new rendering of the word as “falling away” ? The
best guess is that they were taking a stab at what they considered the
false teachings of Catholicism.
Paul used a definite article with the word
apostasia. The significance of this is emphasized by Daniel Davey in a thesis he wrote for the Detroit Baptist Theological Seminary:
Since the Greek language does not need an article to make the noun definite, it becomes clear that with the usage of the article, reference is being made to
something in particular. In
2 Thessalonians 2:3 the word
apostasia is prefaced by the definite article which means that Paul is pointing to a particular type of departure clearly known to the Thessalonian church.
In light of this grammatical point, the use of the definite article would support the notion that Paul spoke of a clear, discernible notion. And that notion he had already identified is in verse 1 when he stated that he was writing about “our gathering together to Him [Jesus].”
This interpretation also corresponds to the point that Paul makes in verses 6 and 7 where he states that the man of lawlessness will not come until what “restrains” him “is taken out of the way.”
And what it is that restrains evil in the world today? The Holy Spirit working through the Church.