(3) Can all men believe? Or are some men NEVER MEANT to believe?
Yes. No.
(1) I noticed you IGNORED Mark 4:11-12 and John 10:26...
I noticed that you never mentioned them. So why would I address what you didn't mention?
Maybe you would like to ADDRESS those Scriptures instead of IGNORE them
because they contradict your presupposition?
If this is a question, then the obvious answer is of course NOT!
Mark 4-
11 He told them, “The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables
12 so that, “ ‘they may be ever seeing but never perceiving, and ever hearing but never understanding; otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!’”
If you had studied the original quote from Isaiah, you'd have known that the actions in v.12 are self inflicted. Neither Mark 4 or Isa 6 tells us that God causes the blindness and deafness. But you just want to believe that He does.
In fact, Jesus CURED blindness and deafness.
John 10:26 - but you do not believe because you are not my sheep.
All you need to do is scroll back up in ch 10 to v.9 for HOW a person becomes one of Jesus' sheep: "I am the gate; whoever enters through me will be saved.They will come in and go out, and find pasture."
Did Jesus say anything about "eeny meeny miny mo" regarding who will be saved? No , He didn't. But that's pretty much how you seem to think.
"whoever enters" is a volitional act. Which refers to believing. No one can be forced to believe anything. It comes from the heart (conscience). Have you ever read Rom 2:14,15?
You see..... when you intentionally IGNORE Scripture that contradicts your presupposition, that does not NEGATE the Scripture... it PROVES your theology incorrect.
Again, how can it be "intentional" when you didn't bring up the verses?
Mar 4:11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery
of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done
in parables: 12 That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear,
and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins
should be forgiven them.
While you erroneously think the red words support your "eeny meeny miny mo" theology about salvation, the red words simply state the RESULT of actually hearing and seeing the truth. They WOULD be converted.
John 10:26
But ye believe not,
because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.
OK, so what? Because YOU ignore v.9 you can't see the truth, and you are putting the cart before the horse.
One becomes a sheep of Jesus' by believing. No other way.
(2) If you believe that Christ PAID for the sins of everyone born...
then WHY are the people in Mark 4:11 and John 10:26 paying for their OWN sins?
Who said they are? Just you, and anyone else confused on the matter.
Here's the deal. The Bible says that all sins were atoned for. Heb 7, 9, 10. Lots of times. The phrase "once for ALL" is instructive.
And 2 Cor 5:14,15 SAYS that Christ died for ALL. And v.19 says, "that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting people’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation." And don't bother claiming that "the world" here refers to the "world of the elect". There's NOTHING in the context to come up with that notion.
1 John 2:2 is also quite clear: " He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world."
No sin must be paid TWICE.
Correct. What you are confused about is that people will be cast into the lake of fire for their sins. Where do you get that from?
This is what the Bible says in Rev 20:15 - Anyone whose name was not found written in the book of life was thrown into the lake of fire.
So, we know that eternal life is a gift, from Rom 6:23. It is those who didn't receive the gift that will be cast into the lake of fire. And since the gift is offered to everyone, those who don't possess that gift are not qualified to live with God forever. And there's only one other place in eternity for them to go; the lake of fire.
Gift offered to everyone:
Titus 2:11 - For
the grace of God has appeared that
offers salvation to all people.
Salvation is by grace, says Eph 2:8, and that "not of works" per v.9.
Who is qualified?
Col 1:12 - and giving joyful thanks to the Father, who
has qualified you to share in the inheritance of his holy people in the kingdom of light.
The only way into the kingdom is by possessing God's very life; eternal life.
Read Mark 4:11-12 again
Read John 10:26 again
Read my explanation again.
It is clear that JESUS (not Calvin) said these men were NEVER MEANT to be saved.
It is NOT clear. In fact, not only is it "not clear", it very clearly DOESN'T say what you think it says. As I explained.
If I am not mistaken, it was JESUS who said Mark 4:11-12 and John 10:26...
was JESUS a "Calvinist"?
Well, you are quite mistaken. Jesus obviously was no Calvinist. He died for everyone.