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Superiority Complex.

ephraimanesti

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Why wouldn't they make sense if speaking about a nation? You cannot simply make this claim and have no evidence for it. I gave you the passages where the servant is clearly identified by Isaiah. Where are your passages to show me I am incorrect?
See above--and below.

ephraim
 
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ephraimanesti

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I think you are trying too hard to make it Jesus.

49:3, just two verses prior, again identifies the servant. As clear as possible. How many times would Isaiah have to say it for you to see it? He's repeating it over and over again.
HOW CAN THE SERVANT BE ISRAEL WHEN THE SERVANT IS BEING SENT TO SAVE JACOB/ISRAEL?

ephraim
 
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b&wpac4

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HOW CAN THE SERVANT BE ISRAEL WHEN THE SERVANT IS BEING SENT TO SAVE JACOB/ISRAEL?

Because Israel refers to a nation, it refers to the Northern Kingdom, and it also refers to those who remained observant to God. Do all caps make your argument somehow more powerful?
 
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ephraimanesti

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Because Israel refers to a nation, it refers to the Northern Kingdom, and it also refers to those who remained observant to God. Do all caps make your argument somehow more powerful?
Well, i suspect we had better agree to disagree because we are going around in circles.

CAPS are neither here nor there.

PEACE!
ephraim
 
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b&wpac4

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Well, i suspect we had better agree to disagree because we are going around in circles.

Just as long as my understanding is shown as valid, even if disagreed with, I am ok with that. I do not like the insistence that my understanding is illogical or invalid.
 
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ephraimanesti

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Just as long as my understanding is shown as valid, even if disagreed with, I am ok with that. I do not like the insistence that my understanding is illogical or invalid.
MY BROTHER,

Your "understanding" just makes no sense. Read the passage. Think about what it says. Think about how it says what it says. Isaiah 49:5-7:

"And now the Lord says--He who formed me in the womb to be His servant TO BRING JACOB BACK TO HIM and GATHER ISRAEL TO HIMSELF." (Isaiah 49:5) How can the Servant BE Jacob/Israel when He was formed in the womb to "BRING JACOB BACK TO HIM" and to "GATHER ISRAEL TO HIMSELF."?

"He says, 'It is too small a thing for You to be my Servant to RESTORE THE TRIBES OF JACOB and BRING BACK THOSE OF ISRAEL I HAVE KEPT.' " How Can the Servant BE Jacob/Israel and at the same time "RESTORE THE TRIBES OF JACOB and BRING BACK THOSE OF ISRAEL."?

:bow:ABBA'S FOOL,
ephraim
 
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Josiah14

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Just as long as my understanding is shown as valid, even if disagreed with, I am ok with that. I do not like the insistence that my understanding is illogical or invalid.


Well, I think I have heard pretty consistently that one cannot argue anyone into Christianity. Jesus Christ is not a philosophical idea, He is a person, and He is God. As such, the only way to conclusively verify the Christian understanding of the Scriptures is to go to Christ.

I would like to say that the only valid understanding of the Scriptures is the one(s) that agree(s) with reality. I would not say that your understanding was unintelligent or poorly thought out. I would say, though, that cognitive reasoning can only get you so far.

I found Christ through prayer, not intellectual or philosophical analysis. I didn't have any visions, nor did I hear any voices (as some would like to think God would do for you). I came to understand Christ as God by a revelation in my nous. It is impossible to describe what this is like unless you have had the same experience - it's not physical, it's spiritual.

I say this so that everyone here knows, at the end of the day, I will never try to prove Christ to you (If I do, please call me out). I can show what Christianity is, and that the Scriptures can be understood through it in such a way that they complement each other and reveal Christ as the Messiah, but I dont think anyone can prove this as one proves a scientific theory. If you want proof, you yourself have to take the time to pray and open yourself up to the possibility of Christ as the Messiah.
 
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b&wpac4

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MY BROTHER,

Your "understanding" just makes no sense. Read the passage. Think about what it says. Think about how it says what it says. Isaiah 49:5-7:

"And now the Lord says--He who formed me in the womb to be His servant TO BRING JACOB BACK TO HIM and GATHER ISRAEL TO HIMSELF." (Isaiah 49:5) How can the Servant BE Jacob/Israel when He was formed in the womb to "BRING JACOB BACK TO HIM" and to "GATHER ISRAEL TO HIMSELF."?

"He says, 'It is too small a thing for You to be my Servant to RESTORE THE TRIBES OF JACOB and BRING BACK THOSE OF ISRAEL I HAVE KEPT.' " How Can the Servant BE Jacob/Israel and at the same time "RESTORE THE TRIBES OF JACOB and BRING BACK THOSE OF ISRAEL."?

:bow:ABBA'S FOOL,
ephraim

So we cannot agree to disagree as you suggested?
 
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razeontherock

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No, the Servant of God in Isaiah is always identified as Israel. It is through the nation of Israel that this will happen. The messiah is not the Servant of God in Isaiah.

Israel is a type of Christ. Look at the curses of Deut 28, and their fulfillment by Israel.
 
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razeontherock

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I think you are trying too hard to make it Jesus.

49:3, just two verses prior, again identifies the servant. As clear as possible. How many times would Isaiah have to say it for you to see it? He's repeating it over and over again.

Yes, the servant is National Israel. And Israel is a type of Christ. You can have prophecy fulfilled in a natural sense, which in no way reduces it's Spiritual application(s).
 
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Because Israel refers to a nation, it refers to the Northern Kingdom, and it also refers to those who remained observant to God. Do all caps make your argument somehow more powerful?

The Zohar doesn't concur with this explanation. It was thought by the 1st century rabbis that in fact, Israel 53 was an explanation of the Messiah. So your rabbis contradict here. The whole Isaiah 53 being about Israel is a recent invention. The tsadiyq is in fact a reference to Mashiach.
 
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b&wpac4

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The Zohar doesn't concur with this explanation. It was thought by the 1st century rabbis that in fact, Israel 53 was an explanation of the Messiah. So your rabbis contradict here. The whole Isaiah 53 being about Israel is a recent invention. The tsadiyq is in fact a reference to Mashiach.

How recent of an invention is it?

Also, the Zohar does concur with this explanation. It does at some point equate the suffering servant to the messiah, but also to Moses and Elijah. It is surprising you don't mention the times it doesn't say it is the messiah, but zero in on the few times it does. More often than not is is corporate Israel.

What sources are you quoting when you say 1st century rabbis said it was about the messiah? Can I see them?
 
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b&wpac4

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Just to throw it out there. For anybody who wants to tell me that the view was a "recent invention" please read chapter 54 and 55 of this CHURCH FATHERS: Contra Celsus, Book I (Origen)

It's a Christian document that was written around 250 that specifically states that Jews of that time believed it was about corporate Israel.
 
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ephraimanesti

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When humans convince themselves they can interpret prophetic language the roots of confusion are sown. What exactly is "spiritual application?" An application to spirits? What is that?
MY BROTHER,

A good example would be Jesus' Parables--Simple stories about earthly situations which are symbolic of deep Spiritual Truths. Another would be the fact that all the endless rites, rituals, rules, and regulations found in the Pentateuch have a spiritual application and are symbolic of the Spiritual realities which they prefigure.

:bow:ABBA'S FOOL,
ephraim
 
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razeontherock

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When humans convince themselves they can interpret prophetic language the roots of confusion are sown. What exactly is "spiritual application?" An application to spirits? What is that?

Keep seeking! Humans don't need to interpret prophetic language. If you have to ask what Spiritual application is, you don't yet have the Spirit of Truth. Keep seeking ...
 
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