Ok, thank you.
I see what you are saying - to a degree. And I agree that it is wrong to say things in such a way as to imply that all of a certain group believe something when they do not.
I think what a sentence implies might not be exactly the same from one person to another, because your answers were not what I expected.
I would have equated "Islam promotes xyz" (which you said could not be said in this way if it was not universally shared by all Muslims) with "The Koran teaches xyz" (which you said was ok).
I see you are making very fine distinctions then. Which there is nothing wrong with that, but it does become more difficult to reach a consensus.
For the sake of allowing me to consider it better, I can bring the example closer to home.
"Christianity promotes a literal interpretation on the Body and Blood in the Eucharist". (Which folks here for the most part will agree with, though it might not be universal among more modern groups of Christians. But according to the same logic, it cannot be said because it does not represent all.
But "The Bible teaches a literal interpretation of the Body and Blood in the Eucharist" would be allowed (and I agree it should be, since anyone who disagrees will say it is a matter of interpretation anyway.
But I have to wonder if the reactions/feelings about the "ruling" would be the same if I said
"Christians promote a symbolic understanding of the Eucharist" is NOT ok (following your statement that my first example would not be)
and
"The Bible promotes a symbolic understanding of the Eucharist" would be ok - and those who disagree would again reply that this is opinion and a matter of interpretation.
I don't know if I'm helping or making things worse. But I see a lot of confusion and/or disagreement over minor shifts in usage.
I'm not trying to be argumentative in the least - I was hoping to shed more light but it seems I failed because I'm not perfectly understanding the distinctions either.