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Looks like a case of circular argument to me. Why should the tongue-speaker pray that they may interpret if they already understand?But the speaker is edified. And Paul mentions nothing besides understanding what is said as the basis for edification.
Why should the tongue-speaker pray that they may interpret if they already understand?
It came from #793 and it was concerning Jeremiah 8:8 in application, though I never quoted that verse. I believe the application Jeremiah was exhorting the people of Israel with concerning the "lying pen of the scribes" was this.lol
"Until then, into the theological dustbin it goes"
"The most insightful thing I think I've heard from you"
but I don't remember the original context - if reminded, I may come up with an application
Wouldn't the "Uncials -- ALL CAPS - and the later miniscules" be in reference to translations into western languages, rather than original manuscripts?
In my experience, ninety to ninety-five percent of tongues addressed to the congregation are interpreted by someone other than the tongues-speaker. It's rare that someone in the congregation can't interpret. It has never really been an issue.I agree that is odd. I always understood the passage that if you ONLY have a prayer language or only can give a message in Tongues but cannot interpret it -- you should seek the gift of Interpretation so that you can give a message to the body and not count on someone else to interpret -- it would be awkward indeed if I spoke a message in Tongues to the church, could not interpret it myself, and no one else did either.
I have never seen any of these "bad things" involving tongues, fakery and what-not; the only bogus thing I encountered was Word of Knowledge
Right. By originals, I meant ancient copies in the original language.No -- we are still talking Koine Greek for the ORIGINALS (the "autographs" as called) and the copies of them in Koine Greek -- I think the numbers of manuscripts are above 5,600 for the New Testament or PARTS of the New Testament in Koine Greek. Nobody has any 'autographs' -- like THE letter Paul wrote to Ephesians on the original parchment or papyrus -- but with over 5,600 manuscripts, we can pretty well discern what 'the originals' said
Not according to the book I got that information from.Wouldn't the "Uncials -- ALL CAPS - and the later miniscules" be in reference to translations into western languages, rather than original manuscripts?
It came from #793 and it was concerning Jeremiah 8:8 in application, though I never quoted that verse.
So what about this video.........They didn't have the NT when God sent the Charismatic gifts. They expired when he stopped sending them.
My point is this, approximately 50 times in the NT interpreters added a capital "h" and "s" or just a capital "s" with 'spirit', when they never should have. It simply makes a huge difference in the theology we've inherited since they started trying to figure out when to do so. On the back cover of the book I even started my own list of different translations which are split concerning this. Translations that never existed when the book was written. You'll even find modern translations that will disagree on multiple verses. And then you have the KJV which even says "holy Spirit" in eph 1:13.So what is your point of an English translation using a capital or not for hagion pneuma?
Don't worry about it. Like I told someone in a PM a few days back, this thread is moving faster than the fires in California. I can't keep up either. And I'm taking a break now too.I'm still lost about my own dustbin comment, Hillsage
#793 was your post
What was Dave saying about the Bible being "PERFECT"?My point is this, approximately 50 times in the NT interpreters added a capital "h" and "s" or just a capital "s" with 'spirit', when they never should have. It simply makes a huge difference in the theology we've inherited since they started trying to figure out when to do so. On the back cover of the book I even started my own list of different translations which are split concerning this. Translations that never existed when the book was written. You'll even find modern translations that will disagree on multiple verses. And then you have the KJV which even says "holy Spirit" in eph 1:13.
But just a couple of examples from my personal file;
Joel 2:28-29 Capital S = YLT, NAS, NIV small s = KJV, RSV
1Cor 14:2 Capital S = RSV, AMP small s = KJV, NAS, NIV YLT
Philip 3:3 Capital S = RV, YLLT, NIV, NAS small s = AV KJV RSV
I've found 14 such verses, pretty much accidentally. I'm not searching for them, but I take note when I find them in a study search.
What was Dave saying about the Bible being "PERFECT"?
Doesn't that agree with Dave though? (horrors) lolThe AUTOGRAPHS are perfect, but we don't have them -- just thousands of copies -- we arrive at a theoretical 'autograph', or the closest we can get to it, by comparing all manuscripts -- I say WE but I mean THEY -- THEY being ones who went way farther than Dr Cutter's fourth semester class in studying Koine Greek, and the Old Testament - holy or Holy smoke, that Hebrew stuff goes upside down and backwards
All gifts are under the control of the believer (14:32). And Paul tells them that they must restrict themselves to 2 or 3 speakers, which means that potentially more could have words.If they all had same Spirit by which they were speaking , then the speaking would come out naturally and nobody would need to learn how to do it , moreover it would be God who made HS speak though you by tongues , not you yourself .
No he doesn't, he says the opposite: No-one except God can understand someone speaking in tongues (14:2); the speaker in tongues edifies himself (14:4) unless there is an interpretation (14:5) in which case others are edified.But the speaker is edified. And Paul mentions nothing besides understanding what is said as the basis for edification.
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