I didn't see you quote any reputable scholars who claimed this either but it's just another one your many smoke screens because you haven't any actual evidence.
Here's what I posted to you before:
The
Geneva Bible comments on 2 Tim 3:17: "The
Prophets and expounders of God's will are properly and distinctly called,
men of God."
John Gill commented on 2 Tim 3:17. "By 'man of God'
may be meant everyone...but more especially a minister of the Gospel; for as it was usual to call a prophet under the Old Testament
by this name, it seems to be
transferred from thence to a minister of the New Testament"
Clearly, John Gill is not describing a reference to
every Christian. He clearly sees the connection to the OT prophet, and I’ve already argued that a NT evangelist properly relies on prophetic utterance. Both commentators are linking "man of God" to the Hebrew usage of that phrase.
That's how a technical term functions. Just like I don't need to prove to you that "Spirit of God" means the same thing in the NT as it did in the OT.
The fact is that the vast majority of interpretations for "man of God" in these two letters believe it refers to people of God, ie. all of us, rather than specifically prophets! Sadly you don't get that when you point that finger at me, three more are pointing back at you as like to accuse others of the things you are most guilty of."
The "vast majority" is a respectable number but not fully decisive. Again, Paul knew how "man of God" was used 70 times in the OT.
.
Tabernacle" was a technical term in the OT. Are you really that desperate or just bringing the most stupid argument you can? (To anyone else reading please forgive the insulting terms used here, but Jal constantly uses or implies such terms whilst refusing to respond to direct and pertinent points and nothing of the subtle nature seems to be getting through).. There are many terms that translate perfectly well from the Hebrew OT to the Greek NT, and vice versa. There are also many terms that do not. If you know that, then you're being deceitful here in pretending the fact that Tabernacle translates back and forth well is significant. If you do not, then you are ignorant. I can't tell which.
How is "man of God" used as a technical term 70 times in the OT insignificant? Oh that's right. You're insisting on, "You have to give 100% proof otherwise Sola Scriptura is the default." Sola Scriptura is riddled with logical, pragmatic, and logistical difficulties. It's not the default. And I can't prove
anything 100%. I can't even prove that you exist.
Let's be mature. You discounted "tabernacle" as an example of a technical term because you gratuitously discount anything opposed to your position. Convenient, isn't it?
Still waiting for you to resolve the logical contradiction alleged at post 151.
And I'm not even insisting it does... that's a lie! Right from the start of this thread, you argued that 2Ti:3 16-17 only applies to prophets based on the very thing you insisted that you now claim you're not insisting. That "man of God" means prophet. You like moving goalposts, strawman arguments, Ad hominem attacks, anything save admitting you erred or that other people's view might be valid.
I "insist" in the sense of defending my points vigorously in a debate. That's because my signature is ever-present as a disclaimer. I have repeatedly acknowledged that I am a fallible interpreter. In fact, I said that, as a fallible human being, I can't even be sure that God exists!
Your problem is that, for SS, you basically stand or fall on 2 Tim 3:16-17. All I needed to do was show a viable alternative translation. Which I did.
And yes, I believe that it's a reference to prophets. That is my
opinion and I stand by it. Because I am fallible, I don't
ultimately insist that my opinions are correct.
and best of all, whilst you criticise the authority people who believe in SS rely upon, you have nothing to say about the authority or authorities you believe we should rely on. I guess it makes you feel good to simply criticise and you haven't the integrity or confidence to offer where you stand.
Seriously.... "maybe you should tell us what authority is so great to judge whether that "voice" you like to refer to is God's, your own or anothers?
Yeah, like you've established your credibility on this thread as an above-board debater. I don't see any clear evidence of that.