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Ishmael Borg
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Thanks for the answer John, honestly. But it didn't really answer my question. If susceptibility to physical harm is directly proportional to sin, what could have killed a sinless man?JohnR7 said:He died for the sins of the whole world. So that we could inherit eternal life. He died in our place for us. It was though one man, Adam, that sin entered into the world, and the result of sin is death. It was though one man, christ, that the penelity or the price was paid for mankind's sin. God is a God of absolute justice. People so often think of sin as people only hurting themselves. But people sin in that they hurt others a lot more than what they realize. God demands justice, He demands that a price be paid for people hurting one another. Jesus paid that price.
Jesus actually had no advantage over us. He was a man with all the limitations that we have. When He was baptised, he received the Holy Spirit of God, just like we receive the Holy Spirit of God. We can not only do, everything that Jesus did when He walked the earth. He clearly said we would do greater works than He did. If Jesus went about healing, teaching and doing good onto others, all the more we can do those good works.
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