Why are apocalyptic OT passages like Ezekiel 38-47 and Zechariah 14, taken as literal, when God said he would speak to the prophets of Israel in visions, dreams, and riddles? Shouldn't then passages like these (ezekiel, zechariah) be understood as parabolic?
Numbers 12:6-8 And he said, “Hear my words: If there is a prophet among you, I the LORD make myself known to him in a vision; I speak with him in a dream. Not so with my servant Moses. He is faithful in all my house. With him I speak mouth to mouth, clearly, and not in riddles, and he beholds the form of the LORD.
Numbers 12:6-8 And he said, “Hear my words: If there is a prophet among you, I the LORD make myself known to him in a vision; I speak with him in a dream. Not so with my servant Moses. He is faithful in all my house. With him I speak mouth to mouth, clearly, and not in riddles, and he beholds the form of the LORD.