Should Christian women wear head scarves?

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
Paul would be saying it was wrong with men to have long hair and with them to wore head covering.m This means he was against Samuel. Like I said unnatural was Greek men had short hair that's why paul cut his hair it was unnatural for greek men to have long hair but not Jewish men. Greek men did not wear head covering but Jewish men did. Paul was be disrespecting Jewish law and culture.

http://www.linguistsoftware.com/Payne2006PP1Cor11_2-16.pdf

unlike Jewish men who wore long hair, Greek men found that feminine but it wasn't for the Jews Naraztive Vow was for Jewish People to grow hair and shave it off to offer it to god. John the Baptist was born under this vow meaning long hair for men can't not be a sin but depending on the community.



The Mishnah in Ketuboth (7:6), however, implies that hair covering is not an obligation of biblical origin. It discusses behaviors that are grounds for divorce such as, "appearing in public with loose hair, weaving in the marketplace, and talking to any man" and calls these violations of Dat Yehudit, which means Jewish rule, as opposed to Dat Moshe, Mosaic rule. This categorization suggests that hair covering is not an absolute obligation originating from Moses at Sinai, but rather is a standard of modesty that was defined by the Jewish community.

Has you can see it was Jewish Law and Christians aren't under the law
 
Upvote 0

intojoy

Well-Known Member
Jun 26, 2013
1,612
54
✟2,069.00
Faith
Messianic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
The glory of the woman is her hair. When a woman marries, she submits to the authority of her husband. By covering her natural glory - her hair she is showing that she willingly submits to God by allowing her husband to be her "spiritual head". She is only required to cover her glory during mandatory called out meetings by the elders which does not include bible study home fellowships or other non mandatory church functions.
 
Upvote 0
B

bbbbbbb

Guest
The glory of the woman is her hair. When a woman marries, she submits to the authority of her husband. By covering her natural glory - her hair she is showing that she willingly submits to God by allowing her husband to be her "spiritual head". She is only required to cover her glory during mandatory called out meetings by the elders which does not include bible study home fellowships or other non mandatory church functions.

:thumbsup:
 
Upvote 0

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
still Paul states women hair gives them the covering. Once again you fail to see the covering Paul uses is not a noun but verb and the uncover is used in the O.T has loosen hair. In Fact Talmund states a married women for modesty reason is not to have loosen hair. The noun is used when Paul states a woman hair is the covering. A verb can't be translated has a noun. Also Kephale is used many times has source than leader. If the creation order is important remember this the hebrew word used mean that Eve was equal to Adam.


The Hebrew is )zr 'ezer, as in 'eben-ezer, 'stone of help' or Ezra 'help'. The LXX, Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament, uses the word bohqos boêthos (Strong's 998) to translate 'ezer. Of its 45 uses, boêthos is used 42 times to refer to help from a stronger one, from a more secure or strengthened position, without need of reciprocal help. This strengthens the idea of 'help' as equal or superior rather than inferior. The possible root behind 'ezer may have been either '-z-r "to rescue, save" (as the Ugaritic) and or 'g-z-r meaning "to be strong". The Hebrew letter ghain probably, like Arabic, having previously had two forms implying two roots that may have later got confused when just one Phoenician sign served for both letters. The use of the root verb )zr 'âzar (Strong's 5826) in the Old Testament extends to some 80 occasions, generally of military aid, help from a position of supply or strength. Although the noun is also used of military aid (e.g., Isaiah 30:5; Ezekial 12:14; Hosea 13:9), it does not always imply a victorious intervention or superior assistance. On one occasion it is paralleled with terms for salvation and support (Isaiah 63:5) in the sense of one being leant.F1 In many of the passages it is used in parallelism to words that clearly denote strength or power. Examples are Deut 33;26 and Deut 33:29 etc.

A survey of 'ezer's 20 or so uses reveals strong contexts and parallel terms for might or power, not one of service or slavery. A better and new translation: "I will make a power/strength corresponding to/equal to man." A relationship of equals. In short, it should be suggested that we translate Genesis 2:18 as “I will make a power [or strength] corresponding [and equal] to man.” F.F. Bruce says and Freedman even suggests on the basis of later Hebrew that the second word in the Hebrew expression found in the verse should be rendered ‘equal to him.’ Heightened in Genesis 2:23 where the phrase “ bone of my bones” has an idiomatic sense of “one of us” or in effect “our equal” or “corresponding sameness.”


KENEGDO

The last part of v.18 reads literally as "I will make him for him a helper as in front of him." The phrase 'as in front of him', kenegdô, occurs only here and in v.20, and suggests correspondence, with the new creation (woman) being neither inferior nor superior, but equal. The substantive, negdo, means 'that which is conspicuous, in full view of, in front of', the related noun, nagid, means a 'ruler' or 'prince', and the verb, nagad, means to 'declare, tell, expound, reveal, announce' (interesting in the light of the denial of women teachers by some) or 'go ahead'. This last one suggests 'achievement, pioneering, risk and deliberate thrust into the unknown'.

Thus anyone attempting to use v.18 to put women down or dismiss their ministry is in danger of having the Hebrew words thrown back at them as rather suggesting woman's superiority, ability to declare, teach, expound and reveal, and to be a pioneering leader out in front! In Rabbinic Hebrew, kenegdô is translated as 'corresponding to'. Gretchen Gabelein Hull coins the helpful phrase of woman as "'completer', not his competitor."

Genesis 1:26-28 should be taken as an a priori interpreter of 2:18, as it precedes it, and both are pre-Fall statements. Here, dominion, image, and blessing are conferred upon man, but the text continues, 'let them have dominion ...', 'them' could conceivably refer to all 'male-kind' or the generic inclusive term, 'man-kind'. Since, literally speaking, only Adam and Eve then existed, and the creative blessing to 'go forth and multiply' needed to be spoken over the first couple in order to put the rest of us here on this planet, it would suggest that the 'them' referred to is Adam and Eve. Indeed 1:27-28 elucidates: "male and female created he them. And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion ..."
Thus, as Galatians 3:28 ("there is neither male nor female, all are one in Christ") interprets the other New Testament statements of Paul, so Genesis 1:28 interprets other Old Testament statements, for Scripture must interpret Scripture.
The idea of joint dominion as joint heirs is not alien to the rest of the Bible. In the Old Testament women could inherit in the absence of male heirs, and 1 Peter 3:7 speaks of "being heirs together of the grace of life."
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
head covering is only Jewish law. Why would Paul teach men not to have long hair when that was the culture of Corinthians and not Israel where men did have long hair and go back to Jewish Law goon the Messianic forum and ask them. Are we not under the law of Grace?

Hair covering is generally considered [FONT=Georgia,'Times New Roman',Times,serif]'Jewish Law' (dat Yehudit)[/FONT] rather than Mosaic requirement (divine pronouncement). In practice this distinction is irrelevant as Jews are under both. Dat Yehudit is based largely on the custom of the community one is a member of. Most Heredi communities (ultra Orthodox) require all married male and female members to cover at least the crown of their heads. Specific communities have unique rules for both genders. Women are usually discouraged (if not forbidden) from wearing kippot (yarmulkes) and so they normally use some sort of scarf or wig. The specific rules are essentially the sect's uniforms. often one who is knowledgeable can identify Orthodox Jewish sects by the garments they wear (head covering and otherwise). Most non-Orthodox communities do not have such rules (although men usually are expected to wear kippas in the synagogue except for some Reform ones. Non-Orthodox women frequently do not cover their heads in synagogues). A standard Jewish tradition is that when determining which custom to follow one should follow the example of one mother or father and/of the majority of shul members.
Of course since you aren't Jewish none of these laws apply to you anyway.
I don't know if you identify with a certain Gentile group or not. There are no Jewish (day Yehudit nor Mosaic) hair covering requirements for Noahides male nor female (although some individual groups have them). Some Christian sects have also rules about this




see this is a Jewish person I asked he idenity head covering has Jewish Law so why would Paul teach christians are under Jewish law, when we are not.
 
Upvote 0

Kairu

Junior Member
Jul 22, 2013
18
1
✟15,244.00
Faith
Christian
head covering is only Jewish law. Why would Paul teach men not to have long hair when that was the culture of Corinthians and not Israel where men did have long hair and go back to Jewish Law goon the Messianic forum and ask them. Are we not under the law of Grace?

Hair covering is generally considered [FONT=Georgia,'Times New Roman',Times,serif]'Jewish Law' (dat Yehudit)[/FONT] rather than Mosaic requirement (divine pronouncement). In practice this distinction is irrelevant as Jews are under both. Dat Yehudit is based largely on the custom of the community one is a member of. Most Heredi communities (ultra Orthodox) require all married male and female members to cover at least the crown of their heads. Specific communities have unique rules for both genders. Women are usually discouraged (if not forbidden) from wearing kippot (yarmulkes) and so they normally use some sort of scarf or wig. The specific rules are essentially the sect's uniforms. often one who is knowledgeable can identify Orthodox Jewish sects by the garments they wear (head covering and otherwise). Most non-Orthodox communities do not have such rules (although men usually are expected to wear kippas in the synagogue except for some Reform ones. Non-Orthodox women frequently do not cover their heads in synagogues). A standard Jewish tradition is that when determining which custom to follow one should follow the example of one mother or father and/of the majority of shul members.
Of course since you aren't Jewish none of these laws apply to you anyway.
I don't know if you identify with a certain Gentile group or not. There are no Jewish (day Yehudit nor Mosaic) hair covering requirements for Noahides male nor female (although some individual groups have them). Some Christian sects have also rules about this




see this is a Jewish person I asked he idenity head covering has Jewish Law so why would Paul teach christians are under Jewish law, when we are not.

There is something more than meets the eye about his topic about women wearing headscarves. Paul wrote Ephesians in such a way each chapter contains a lot of meanings.
 
Upvote 0

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
There was an cult in where Paul was. Men wore long hair which was a shame in corthians and women started to wear their hair down. In fact of you look at art work you will see women with hair bound up and not loosen but an cult teach women made men. Paul was talking the fact men were first and men are the source of women . Women were uneducated and many were pagans being that into the church so Paul has to correct them.
 
Upvote 0

graciesings

It is so ordered.
Mar 11, 2013
6,058
972
Texas
✟18,462.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Libertarian
SayaOtonashi, would you please start proofreading your posts? I am not asking you to post perfect essays, but a lot of your posts are hard to read. Is there any way you could check your spelling and keep your grammar at a 7th grade level? Also, it would be nice if you make sure that each post (or each paragraph) makes a clear, consice point. Some of your posts are hard to follow because of grammar errors and a distracted train of thought. I don't want to count you as "someone who doesn't know what she is talking about" and then ignore all your posts, but that seems like the easiest way to respond to you.

I hope you don't see this post as an insult. I do not mean to irritate you and hope some of the ideas I suggested are helpful.

God bless you,
Grace
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
no, I'm just going to say this Head cover was just a jewish law and if we has christans don't follow Jewish Law than why still bother with it and keep the whole 613 laws. In fact it wasn't even a biblical requirement to wear head coverings and the ones that did were married. So, why would Paul teach head coverings. Roman women did not wear head coverings. So, Paul must be talking about an hair problem because O.T did not have it has a requirement.


The Mishnah in Ketuboth (7:6), however, implies that hair covering is not an obligation of biblical origin. It discusses behaviors that are grounds for divorce such as, "appearing in public with loose hair, weaving in the marketplace, and talking to any man" and calls these violations of Dat Yehudit, which means Jewish rule, as opposed to Dat Moshe, Mosaic rule. This categorization suggests that hair covering is not an absolute obligation originating from Moses at Sinai, but rather is a standard of modesty that was defined by the Jewish community.

This it self shows that depending where a woman lived how and when she were to cover her hair depends on where she lived.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

SouthernMama

Junior Member
Aug 3, 2013
18
0
✟15,128.00
Faith
Anabaptist
Marital Status
Married
I have considered this question myself. I came to the conclusion that if the other women don't wear hats or scarves, then wearing one myself would make me too obviously different. It is better for a woman not to stand out and be noticed in the crowd, even if she is attempting to be pious, imo.

I have to disagree. If something is a commandment in the Bible, we should be willing to obey regardless of whether anyone else is following the command. It is not an attempt to be pious, it is an attempt to be obedient. I wonder how many times this teaching continues to be neglected because no one is willing to be the first person to obey. No one wants to stand out. What God thinks of us should be more important that what others think of us.
 
Upvote 0

SouthernMama

Junior Member
Aug 3, 2013
18
0
✟15,128.00
Faith
Anabaptist
Marital Status
Married
I wear a head covering and have for some time now. It was a process getting to that point, though. It really challenges a woman's vanity and wardrobe choices. Once you begin wearing a head covering, you then begin to become aware of modesty issues. I love stylish clothing and feel that you don't have to comprise on style to be modesty and wear head coverings.

As far as 1Cor.11 is concerned, it is clear to me that Shaul (Paul) is talking to all believers. I hear that it was a culture issue that doesn't apply today but the reasons Shaul gives for head covering is not bound by time or culture. So, how then can we ignore this commandment today? I wish the head covering would make a come back. It really wasn't that long ago that women covered their heads during prayer and worship. It does cause you to stand out in the crowd; however, when you are being obedient to Scripture, it doesn't matter. We need leaders!!

I totally agree.
 
Upvote 0

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
it not head covering Paul was talking about you two. You need to do some studying. For you would have understand that Paul wasn't talking about head covering. Exousia is the word for freedom not authiority to the husband her the woman authiorty. Your not understanding the thing has a whole for the torah and talmund both prove that head covering were a culture and that Paul couldn't bbe talking of a head covering for Greek and roman women would be out of place. What was modesty for one place is not another.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
So for though of you who sad otherwise than you don't exosuia is a word for one's own authority and covering is a verb and not a noun. SO Paul is talking about a action not of a thing. Also Women wore their hair up not down.

Hair Length

Christian Ethics Today
 
Upvote 0

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
You would also have to deny this for head covering is in the talmund it's Jewish and if there of you who said it's a command than you telling me that we aren't in a new convet but under the old since it's Jewish Law. Talmund shows that it was where and when a woman had to cover her hair but if we aren't under Jewish Law why do you still want to follow old laws. Keep all 613. laws for Head covering is Jewish Law and if you follow them than you must deny that you aren't in the new convent.

www.wholebible.com/head_covering.htm

So if you continue with this argument than you must not understand grammer fot the word covering in greek in a verb so not an actual covering. the only covering that's a noun is when Paul said a woman's hair is her covering. I repeat a woman's hair is the covering.



read there articles
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

SayaOtonashi

Newbie
May 19, 2012
1,960
81
USA
✟19,181.00
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
Not only that but to point out that it was an cultural problem is the fact that Paul said it was unatural for men to have long hair and yet in Irasel it was not unatural for men in fact quite a few men and Paul himself had long hair. He cut it befire going to Greece. Why? because it was unatural for romans and Greek men to have long hair.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums
B

bbbbbbb

Guest
Not only that but to point out that it was an cultural problem is the fact that Paul said it was unatural for men to have long hair and yet in Irasel it was not unatural for men in fact quite a few men and Paul himself had long hair. He cut it befire going to Greece. Why? because it was unatural for romans and Greek men to have long hair.

Really? My Bible tells me that he had been keeping a vow. Nazirites were under a permanent vow not to cut their hair and some Jewish men would allow their hair to grow in order to keep a vow. Likewise, some Jewish men would shave their heads also as part of a vow.
 
Upvote 0