How do you fit this into your thinking, specifically v24 to 28??
Clearly Paul is teaching there exists a distinctness between the Son and the Father.
1 Corinthians 15
20 But now Christ is risen from the dead, and has become the firstfruits of those who have [d]fallen asleep. 21 For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive. 23 But each one in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who are Christ’s at His coming.
24 Then comes the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father, when He puts an end to all rule and all authority and power.
25 For He must reign till He has put all enemies under His feet.
26 The last enemy that will be destroyed is death.
27 For “He has put all things under His feet.” But when He says “all things are put under Him,” it is evident that He who put all things under Him is excepted.
28 Now when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him who put all things under Him, that God may be all in all.
I feel like this is a very good point, friend. It's clear in this passage that Paul separates and makes the distinction between the Son and the Father, with the Son delivering the kingdom unto the Father.
However, when we read of this taking place in Revelation 21 and 22, it's clear that the Bible unifies the Father and the Lamb as one with one throne.
For example, take into consideration these verses:
Revelation 21:22-23 "And I saw no temple therein (speaking of New Jerusalem): for the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are
the temple of it. And the city had no need of the sun, neither the moon, to shine in it: for the glory of God did lighten it, and the Lamb is the light thereof." The word "the" is a definite article that articulates a noun, whether plural or singular, and the word temple is "singular." If there is only one temple, and both the Lord God Almighty (referencing the Father) and the Lamb are the same single temple, it's indicating they are both one.
Revelation 22:1 "And he shewed me
a pure river of water of life, clear as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb." How is one single river proceeding from two different sources if it's one river? It must be originating out of one throne.
Revelation 22:3 "And there shall be no more curse: but the throne (singular) of God and of the Lamb shall be in it; and
his servants shall serve
him:" This distinguishes between the Father and the Lamb, but uses the singular 3rd person pronoun to describe the servants of God, saying they're his (singular) servants. This also unifies the Father and the Son.
I cannot explain away 1 Corinthians 15, but I do know that scripture wouldn't contradict itself. The only thing I can reconcile is that the Bible indeed makes a distinction between the record bearers in the Godhead, but also keeps them in perfect unity like in 1 John 5:7.
Hebrews 1:3 even says God is one person, "Who being the brightness of his glory, and the
express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high." Either this verse separates the Godhead and contradicts the scripture of 1 John 5:7 which unifies them as one, or God is one person and the brightness of his glory is revealed in the image of the Son, who is God manifest in the flesh, making God one person.