Actually the bias translators have translated at times correctly, but other times mis-translated thirteen ways: eternal age, ages of ages, course, world, , since the world began, from the beginning of the world, ever, forever, forever and ever, for evermore, while the world standeth, world without end, and, never. Sometimes the Greek Word was aion other times it was aionios; did not matter to them.
I understand what Strongs Concordance is saying but I just gave you some examples of how religious translators have mis-translated the word age (Hebrew Olan) in the Hebrew and there are plenty example with the Greek words aion or aionios being mistranslated; just by looking at what the Bible is saying.
"Now, I knew enough traditional teaching on this word (aeonios), which is from another Greek word, aion, meaning "age." ; aeon and aeonios are not two completely different words. They are the noun and adjective form of the same word, just as hour is a noun and hourly is an adjective. One cannot rationally say that the meaning of a word is changed to mean its opposite simply by changing its usage from noun to adjective without violating all the rules of English and translation. Aeon means "age. But the word aeonios does not mean the opposite of its noun origin. As hourly means, "pertaining to the hour," so aeonios means "pertaining to the age."
"This word aeon occurs in the New Testament in so many peculiar and varying forms as to make it certain that it expresses some deep and important meaning well worth searching out. First we have the simple word many times repeated, both in the singular and plural. Then we have the word in combination with several prepositions: from the age, Luke 1:70; from the ages, Eph. 3:9; out of the ages, John 9:32; before the ages, 1 Cor. 2:7; before times of ages or before age-times, Tim. 1;2, the purpose of the ages, Eph. 3:11 (N.V. margin); the age to come, Heb. 6:5; the ages to come, Eph. 2:7; the end of the age; Matt. 24:3; the end of the ages, Heb. 9:26; the ends of the ages, 1 Cor. 10:11.
Furthermore in connection with the preposition unto we find the following remarkable changes:
1. Unto the age. Mark 3:29.
2. Unto the ages. Luke 1:33.
3. Unto all the ages. Jude 25.
4. Unto the age of the age. Heb. 1:8.
5. Unto all the generations of the age of the ages. Eph. 3:21.
6. Unto the ages of the ages. Rev. 1:6.
7. Unto the day of an age. 2 Pet. 3:18.
"Can anyone suppose that these peculiar forms have no special meaning? Is all this a mere play upon words? Simply purposeless repetition?
Remember, God by His Spirit is the real author of the inspired Word. "Holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Spirit." Is it not certain, then, as I have said, that these varying forms, so peculiar and striking, hide some spiritual mystery? And would it have not been more respectful to the Word if the translators of the common version (KJV) had rendered these expressions literally, even though they did not know what they meant, rather than to obscure the sense altogether with capricious renderings? These translators (of my precious KJV) have handled this word (aeon) apparently without any respect whatever to its real meaning. They have rendered its various combinations in thirteen ways, These are not translations but paraphrases, and look to me like 'handling the Word of God deceitfully,' albeit it may have been unintentional."
I like to use the King James Version, because for the study of Greek words it's simply easier to cross-reference the KJV with Strong's Concordance. "Anyway, in a matter of minutes I was stunned to discover that in Matthew 25:46, the words "everlasting" and "eternal" were the same Greek word, aionios, (Strong's #166), which means, "eternal, forever, everlasting, world."
First of all, I would have thought it very strange indeed if you had come to any other conclusion while using the very books that have been so instrumental in propagating the error of "eternal" torment.
Secondly, Matthew 25:46 is not speaking of the judgment of individuals. It is speaking of the judgment of the nations. (See verse 32) Nowhere does the Lord allude to individuals, but always to nations. But even if it did refer to individuals, it doesn't stand up to the light of truth.
The Greek words for "everlasting punishment" are "chastening aeonian." "aeonios," which means "pertaining to the age". Our English word, "punishment," has been translated from the Greek word, "kolasis" which comes from the root word, "kolazo." "Kalazo" means, "to chastise, to punish." It is closely associated with the Greek word, "kalaphizo," which means, "to rap with the fist."
As to the possibility of the "everlasting punishment" of the wicked and the "eternal life" of the righteous being the same, it doesn't exist. The Greek word, "aeonian" simply means, "pertaining to the age". "Aeonian," being the adjective form of "aeon," is descriptive of both the kind of life of the righteous and the kind of punishment of the wicked. In the strictest sense, it really has no reference to time at all but to the quality of that life or punishment. Does that do away with eternal life for the redeemed? Not at all, for it is clearly taught by many other scriptures throughout the Bible, but "aeon/aeonios" does not describe the duration of that life.
The word, "eternal," means, "without beginning or end," as we seem to use it. I'm not sure anyone really understands the term, and it is nowhere defined or alluded to in an unending sense in the entirety of the Bible. God is eternal, without beginning or end, even though He is also the God of the ages, for He is the Creator of time and of all the ages time consists of. The life for the age that the redeemed know is that quality of life of peace and joy that we now enjoy but in no way precludes or prevents our eventual entrance in to that life which is without beginning or end, which is God's. "To know Him is eternal life."
The statement, "Now, on this horizontal line within the two vertical lines is an aeon of time which can certainly be described as "eternal," eternal or perpetual (and complete) within its own context," makes no logical sense. There can be no perpetual (eternal) period of time. That would be like saying "The goodness of evil, the dryness of wet, the sweetness of bitter." They are contradictory and conflicting terms. To say that they mean the same is to destroy the meaning of both.
What about the God sending a baby goat going everlasting fire:
Matt 25: 32And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats (Greek) kid or baby goat):
Vs.41 Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels: