So does the evidence of God's character through creation.
However what you seem to miss is that the Law of the Spirit is the very voice of the indwelling Christ which is far more precise than the Written Law ever was.
I agree that the Spirit helps us to correctly keep God's law, but that is not something different from the Spirit leading us to keep it. Jesus was led by the Spirit and that did not look different than living in obedience to the Law of God, so the Law of the Spirit is not something different than it.
Paul warned against returning to accountability to the written Law and thereby loosing the walk of faith that Jesus paid such a high price that we might walk in it's freedom. In so doing we would attain to a higher level of righteousness because the result is much more than right action, it also includes right attitude.
In Titus 2:14, it does not say that Jesus gave himself to free us from God's law, but in order to free us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works, so the freedom that we have in Christ is the freedom from sin, not the freedom to do what God's law reveals to be sin, and becoming zealous for doing good works in obedience to God's law is the way to believe in what he accomplished through the cross (Acts 21:20). In Psalms 119:142, God's law is truth, and in John 8:31-36, it is sin in transgression of God's law that puts us in bondage while it is the truth that sets us free.
Paul spoke about multiple different categories of law other than the Law of God, such as works of the law and the law of sin. For example, in Romans 3:27, he contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, and in Romans 7:25-8:2, he contrasted the Law of God with the law of sin and contrasted the Law of the Spirit of Life with the law of sin and death. So while Paul warned against works of the law and the law of sin, he was a servant of God, so he never warned us against obeying what God has commanded as if obedience to God was somehow a negative thing.
If the New Covenant is only made with the Nation of Israel then the Body of Christ including the Gentiles is non-existant.
In Exodus 12:38, there was a mixed multitude that came up out of Egypt, so there were Gentiles as the foot of Sinai. In Joshua 8:33, Israel was inclusive of both the foreigner and the native born, so there have always been righteous Gentiles who have affiliated themselves with the God of Israel who have sought by faith to learn how to walk in His way. In Acts 15:16-17, they saw the inclusion of Gentiles as being part of the restoration of Israel in fulfillment of prophecy, not as a brand new entity. In Ephesians 2:19, through faith in Christ, Gentiles are no longer strangers or aliens to the covenants of promise, but now fellow citizens of Israel along with the saints in the household of God. In Romans 9:6-8, Israel is made up of those who have faith in the promise. In 1 Peter 2:9-10, Gentiles are included as part of God's chosen a people, a holy nation, a royal priesthood, and a treasure of God's own possession, which are terms used to describe Israel (Deuteronomy 7:6), so Gentiles also have the delight of getting to obey the instructions that God gave for how to fulfill those roles. So it is only through faith in Christ that Gentiles are able to become joined to Israel and partakers of the New Covenant.
This is false logic that you are compelled to construct.
The Law of the Spirit and the Written Law are entirely different.
God is not in disagreement with Himself about which laws we should follow, so the Law of Christ is the same as the Law of the Spirit and the Law of the Father, which was given to Moses. The Spirit would lead us to do something other than what the Father has instructed, so you keep unjustifiably insisting that they are different while handwaving verses that equate them.
The New Covenant was made with the spiritual descendants of Abraham the Father of all who have faith, not the Nation of Israel.
I'll quote Jeremiah 31:31 to support that it was made with the house of Judah and the house of Israel. What can you quote from the Bible to support your claim?
Why pull believers back to a Yoke that is unbearable ???
Acts 15
9 and He made no distinction between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith. 10 Now therefore why do you put God to the test by placing upon the neck of the disciples a yoke which neither our fathers nor we have been able to bear? 11 But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they also are.”
In Deuteronomy 30:11-14, God said that His law is not too difficult to obey, so you claiming that it is an unbearable yoke is in direct disagreement with God. Likewise, in 1 John 5:3, to love God is to obey His commandments, which are not burdensome, yet you are essentially interpreting Acts 15 as ruling that Gentiles shouldn't love God because His commandments are too burdensome. Jesus set a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to God's law, and Matthew 11:28-30, he invited people to come to him for rest and to learn from him and that his yoke was easy and his burden was light.
The Psalms express an extremely positive view of God's law, such as with David repeatedly saying that he loved it and delighted in obeying it, so if we consider the Psalms to be Scripture and to therefore express a correct view of it, then we will share it, as Paul did (Romans 7:22), and will not interpret Paul as speaking against doing something that he delighted in doing. For example, in Psalms 1:1-2, blessed are those who delight in the law of the law and who meditate on it day and night, so we can't believe in the truth of these words as Scripture while not allowing them to shape our view of God's law, and anything less than the view that we ought to delight in obeying it is incompatible with the view that the Psalms are Scripture. Furthermore, the authors were in complete agreement with everything said about God's law in the Psalms and should not be interpreted as holding a view of God's law that is incompatible with the view that the Psalms are Scripture.
Why do you think that it makes perfect sense to interpret God's word as speaking against obeying God's word?