Nevertheless, we are still that lump of clay and God is the one who controls this. Our will is not autonomous from God's will.
Yes, we are still the lump of clay; but I am attempting to uncover the truth of context as it relates to the Hebraic understanding of God's sovereignty here, that being in accordance with our moral choices. Our will is not autonomous from God's will? This is not necessarily the case. The non-Calvinist will declare that it is God who ordains; who allows things to come to pass; that our wills are entirely free and whatever God decides to actualize is actualized; it is as a younger Augustine would state: God is the arbiter, not cause, of sin. There is no need for compelling, and hence no superseding of man's will being individual to God's, yet still used by God to establish His will. It is the Lutheran position of fate being precisely what God desires, though our freedom constitutes this, while God ordains whichever worlds He sees fit.
The Reformed Tradition never says that it "is an emission of His lack of love". The point of Romans 9 is to demonstrate God's sovereignty. In fact, the Reformed Tradition is all about God's abundant love. Why do you think that Calvinism was called the Doctrines of Grace long before Calvin?
Well, at least as this relates to the context of the passage, and how it relates to possible interpretations, the reformed tradition has the perception of a God who loves less than the other. This was really all I was getting at.
Not if you believe that God is omipotent it is not open to interpretation. If God is truly omnipotent (nobody can thwart His will) then this verse applies to anyone who objects to this doctrine.
I don't think I'm following. God's being omnipotent does not supersede any objective historical understanding of what the verse is saying -- of who at that time Paul
was speaking to. It would be a fallacy to assert that Paul is speaking to
everyone -- Jew and Christian -- when he may only be speaking to Jews, etc. This doesn't hurt God's sovereignty at all.
Um, v20 is respond to an objection to v18. As demonstrated:
v18 "So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires."
v20 "On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, "Why did you make me like this," will it?"
It is very clear and reading it other than what it says is just plain eisogesis.
Yes, but as stated above, there is no necessary reason to accept that the idea of God hardening whom He will and having mercy on whom He will is in accordance with the reformed tradition; I have been arguing that Paul's implications may be entirely opposite of what the reformed stance has had all along -- that he is responding to those who hold a limited election through the bloodline of Israel -- which the Pharisees were notorious for as evidenced over and over again in the gospels --, and that Paul's statement of God having mercy on whom He will is his way of saying that He will save whoever He darn well pleases; that matters of a limited election mean nothing to Him, and that He truly desires the salvation of all. A few verses later I attempt to fuse this idea with the Jewish understanding of using one lump for honorable and another for dishonorable use conditional on one's willingness to repent and follow God or not.
Calvinism does not say this. Calvinism says that Adam and Eve had a neutral state and if they once sinned, they would be incapable of ever being in communion with God again (unless He provided a way). Then when sin entered the world, it tarnished future generations. These (in a nutshell) are the doctrines of Original Sin and Total Depravity. These are in no way, whatsoever, anywhere near heresy. I'd like to see how someone could claim they are.
They mean heresy when you stand fast with the belief that it is necessarily factual that sin nature entered the world not through one man, but through the choice in conscious agreement with this one man by acting
with him, in his loins, prior to their existence. This is heresy, for it implies the existence of a soul prior to one's existence. If sin enters the world without man's choice -- as the non-Calvinists agree to being the case with Romans 5 --, man is not responsible for the existence
of sin, but is responsible for
his sin as it relates to his unwillingness to repent. Paul declares very plainly in Romans 7 that sin is a
power workinig contrary to the mind that wills the law; it is, as he states in former chapters, deceptive. I have
no problem with the doctrine of original sin; I have infinite problems with the claim that we all brought about this sin through a volitional and conscious choice
in Adam, prior to our existence.
I may have been chasing an irrelevant rabbit all along; and for this I apologize in advance.
I like my coffee black?
That's just repulsive, man
How the heck do people drink coffee; I don't know, I don't know, I don't know.
That is not Original Sin. That view is called Semi-Pelagianism and it is borderline heresy (which would be Pelagianism).
What do you mean?
This is a fact for those who hold this interpretation of original sin.
I am a Calvinist and I desire that all men be saved. I have no idea who will and won't be saved, just like Paul. You are presupposing that Paul knows God's plan for election. You can't do that.
Ok, fair enough. What I am saying, however, is that it seems quite a difficulty for the one who does desire the salvation of all -- the one who is sanctified according to the very spirit of God who elects on a non-universal scale -- being the subject of salvation by one who does not. It seems to imply a greater capacity for love for the creation rather than the creator, who is love (1 John 4:8) essentially. As this relates to the fundamental disagreement between Calvinists and non-Calvinists, at least you understand our point of view.
You are first, being the judge of God. What God says He does or not, is by default good and perfect. We cannot say what He should do or not do. That is the point of verse 20, by the way. Another thing, Calvinism never once said that God doesn't love everyone. I don't know who told you that, but you misunderstand the Reformed Faith.
Well, first, I'm not judging God -- I'm judging your interpretation of God -- an ideal, a thesis, and not necessarily a person consciously revolted against. Moreover, the claim that whatever God does is good allows all sorts of skewed interpretations of His nature, namely in the sense that we are limiting God's nature to our epistemological capacity, and with the death of value as it relates to God we are defining Him, if you will, in the dark. For instance, a man may say that the scriptures point to Mormonism with the exact same worldview as your own in that whatever God does is good, rather than good being the essence of God discernable through our judgment. While this man may obviously be mistaken, the idea is the same.
God's nature must be something that we can understand as good and just
a priori, or else we can
never know whether our interpretation of God is correct.
Furthermore, regarding your point of God still loving everyone yet not saving them, I ask you how this can be the case. Does not love desire the best for its subject? Yes, you may reply that it is just for God to condemn men; but I ask you where in scripture this idea of condemnation is not made in reference to anything other than the law, save those who willingly reject belief in Christ, and how to reconcile this idea of justice with such passages as Psalm 62:12 that declare God's mercy and justice to be
one and the same. Our view states that man
is paying for his sinfulness. As Jesus said, all sins will be forgiven save blasphemy against the spirit (Luke 12:10); that is, rebellion.