I said:
"And apostates HAVE believed at one time. So they are excluded from both
John 3:18 and 2 Thess 2:12."
Wrong. Just because someone ceases to believe, how does that prove my doctrine false?
You seem to keep forgetting to include evidence when you make statements.
As is, they are only opinions. Evidence from Scripture is needed to support your opinions.
My point is that of eternal security. Once a person believes, they are guaranteed an inheritance for the day of redemption.
iow, recipients of eternal life shall never perish.
Paul even included the FUTURE in what CANNOT SEPARATE the believer from the love of Christ. Rom 8:38
Which is the whole point of the OP in this thread. 1 Thess 5:10 says "whether we (the believer) is awake or asleep, we SHALL LIVE TOGETHER WITH HIM.
And in that context, being awake and asleep are used as metaphors for how one lives their life. Believers are supposed to be awake, but may not be, and unbelievers are asleep.
Notice what Paul commands believers to do:
5 You are all children of the light and children of the day. We do not belong to the night or to the darkness.
6 So then,
let us not be like others, who are asleep, but let us be awake and sober.
iow, believers are not to act like unbelievers (asleep). But even if believers are asleep, Paul said this:
10 He died for us so that,
whether we are awake or asleep, we may live together with him.
The OP quoted all the other passages that uses the same language for the same concept. Please review the OP for details.