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Romans 7 and the Law of Sin

Soyeong

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I've said nothing along those lines.

Please interact with Romans 7:13-24 to explain how it Is inaccurate to describe what Paul described as the law of sin as being an evil inclination. For example, the law of sin was causing him not to do the good that the wanted to do and to keep on doing the evil that he did not want. Also, even if we do not describe the law of sin as the evil inclination, please explain why you do not consider what he described as the law sin to be referring to Gnosticism.

There is nothing about having different views for how to translate Romans 7:25 that calls someone's honesty into question. In Romans 7, Paul was contrasting serving the Law of God with serving the law of sin, so there is nothing wrong with someone choosing to capitalize "Torah of Elohim" in recognition of its significance and to not capitalize "torah of sin" as referring to something else. While "Torah" mean "instruction" or "law", it generally is specifically used to mean "Law of God", so there is nothing wrong with translating "nomos" as "law" when it is referring to something in contrast with the Torah of God. There is also nothing about choosing to translate it as "torah of sin" that would be incompatible with what I've said, so you're still not explaining why it would be wrong to describe the law of sin as an evil inclination or why describing it as such is perverting what Paul said.

The law of sin was causing Paul not to do the good that he wanted to do and to continue to do the evil that he did not want to do.
 
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daq

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Duly noted.
 
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HIM

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And as he said, he was set free from the law of sin, the law that evil is ever present with him that the righteousness of the law of God be fulfilled in us who walk after the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus and not after the flesh where sin had been condemned. The elephant has been slain.
 
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Cornelius8L

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The law of sin and death mentioned in Romans 8:2 is not the Old Testament law.
(Romans 8:3) “For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, as an offering for sin.”​

What is this law?
 
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HIM

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(Romans 8:3) “For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, as an offering for sin.”​

What is this law?
Law of God which is the law that he served with his mind but could not with his flesh until Christ condemned sin in the flesh that the righteousness of the Law be performed in us who walk after the Spirit of the life in Christ Jesus and not after the flesh.

Rom 7:21 I find then a law, that, when I would do good, evil is present with me.
Rom 7:22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:
Rom 7:23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members.
Rom 7:24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
Rom 7:25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.
 
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Cornelius8L

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So why does the ‘law of God (Which is law of the Spirit)’ that was powerless and weakened by the flesh has to do with God sent His son as offering for sin?

Romans 8:3 is actually reflecting Romans 7:1-6, which talk about how the law changed because the husband died.
 
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HIM

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So why does the ‘law of God (Which is law of the Spirit)’
It is not and it is the Law of the Spirit of life IN Christ Jesus not the Law of the Spirit that enables us to fulfill the Law, the Law of God when we walk after this Spirit and not after the flesh.
 
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expos4ever

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(Romans 8:3) “For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, as an offering for sin.”​

What is this law?
Obviously, to me, this has to be the Law of Moses. And I think that Paul is indeed talking about the Law of Moses in Romans 7, although he also speaks of another law as well. In short, I believe that Paul is arguing that while the Law of Moses is a good thing in itself, God actually uses it to make Israel more sinful, not less. This is an argument from British theologian NT Wright. More later, I hope.
 
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Cornelius8L

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So why does the ‘law of God (Which is law of the Spirit)’ that was powerless and weakened by the flesh has to do with God sent His son as offering for sin?
It is not and it is the Law of the Spirit of life IN Christ Jesus not the Law of the Spirit that enables us to fulfill the Law, the Law of God when we walk after this Spirit and not after the flesh.
So the law of God that Paul spoke of is not the law of the spirit of life in Christ? So, do you mean there are two laws from God? (i) law of God, and (ii) the law of the spirit of life?
 
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expos4ever

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We are throwing around a lot of "versions" of that the term "law" means at various points in Romans 7 and 8. And I am quite sure I do not understand what some of you are saying. However, here is my take on this text from Romans:

First, the "Law of God" in verses 22 and 25 is simply the Law of Moses (i.e., the Torah) as documented in the Pentateuch. That is the easy part, in my opinion.

Second, Paul wants to obey the Law of Moses, but he discerns a problem: there is "something" going on inside him that prevents him from obeying the Law of Moses. Somewhat confusingly, he calls this "something" a law, in particular a law of sin. But, in my opinion, this is just a figure of speech, he is not really talking about a "law" in the sense we normally use the term.

I believe that Paul's basic argument is that while the Law of Moses is a good thing, humans cannot successfully follow it in an unregenerate state since the unregenerate are still in the fallen Adamic condition. And, yes, I am effectively claiming that in this chunk of verses at least, Paul is talking about his state pre-conversion. And, yes, I realize that he is using the present tense and this, at least on a superficial analysis, is evidence against this claim that Paul is describing his pre-conversion state. I hope to provide a fuller defence of my position later.

But, to loop back, based on the whole chapter, in particular verses that precede the ones listed above, I think it is really quite clear that the "Law of God" here is simply the Law of Moses.
 
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Cornelius8L

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As an analogy, human's life has two stages: childhood and adulthood. The "human life" represents the law of God, the "child" phrase is the "old convenant" law, and the "adult" phrase is the "new convenant." Both the child and the adult are the same person. But sin lied to that person and said, "You are a child," even after that person had grown up.
 
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HIM

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So the law of God that Paul spoke of is not the law of the spirit of life in Christ? So, do you mean there are two laws from God? (i) law of God, and (ii) the law of the spirit of life?
The Law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus is us living through Jesus because of His resurrection. Through this he enables us to fulfill the righteousness of the Law of God because we are no longer in captivity to the law of sin, not being able to do the good we would because evil is present with us.
 
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HIM

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The Law of Moses, the Book of the Law is the Law of God and the law mentioned in Romans 7 and 8.

Romans 8:2-4 tells us that Paul (we) have been set free from the Law of sin, not being able to the good that we would, but the evil we wouldn't we do because evil is present with us. Through the Law of the Spirit of the Life in Christ Jesus we walk in newness of Life through Christ because our old man is dead, sin is condemned in the flesh and the righteousness of the law, the Law of God, the Book of the Law, the Law of Moses is fulfilled in us. No longer servants, slaves of sin unto death but servants of righteousness unto life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
 
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HIM

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Never heard of him. Thanks for clarifying your position in your last post.
 
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kayne

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If I break the law it becomes to me the law of sin and death.
 
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kayne

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In verse 7:25 "the law of sin" is that same "law of sin" which we are set free from in 8:2. And we are not set free prior to chapter 8.
 
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kayne

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Correct.
 
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kayne

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Firstly it should be understood that Paul is NOT speaking as a Christian but as one under the law (which Christians are not under). Then it has to be explained how Paul could be a Christian when according to verse 7:24 he had never heard of Christ. In 7:25 natural man under (the) law has his mind aligned with God but the law of sin in his flesh (still himself) has power to overthrow the wishful thinking of his mind 7:23. Then in 8:2 the Spirit sets us free from that law of sin of 7:25.
 
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Soyeong

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If I break the law it becomes to me the law of sin and death.
In Romana 7:2-8:2, Paul contrasted the Law of God with the law of sin and contrasted the Law of the Spirit of Life with the law of sin and death. He did not say that if we break the Law of God, then it becomes to us the law of sin and death, but rather he said that the Law of God is good and that he wanted to do good, but described the law of sin as something that was working within his members to cause him not to do the good that he wanted to do. So it is correct that we are not under the law of sin, but we are still under the Law of God because being under grace does not mean that we are permitted to sin, and sin is the transgression of the Law of God (1 John 3:4). Furthermore, in Psalms 119:29, David wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him to obey His law, so that is what it means to be under grace. Christ set a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to the Law of God, and we are told to follow his example of refraining from sin (1 Peter 2:21-22), so it would be contradictory for someone to want to be a follower of Christ while not considering themselves to be under the Law of God.
 
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kayne

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Rom.6:14,15, Rom.7:1,4,5,6, Rom.7:16,22 Rom.7:25 Rom.8:3,4. I guess an interesting thing is how the verse "love does no harm to its neighbour, therefore love is the fulfilling of the law" is viewed in two different ways according to who is telling the story. The correct view is that BECAUSE love does no harm, it is therefore the fulfilling of the law, that LOVE or 'to love' is in itself, to fulfill the law. This is the 'law of love' which comes with the Spirit of God who is love. The other (wrong) view is that this great quality of LOVE is only enacted or exhibited when the law is kept, by the keeping of the law. This subject is endless in argument, as are many others because there will aways be a right and a wrong view. Many are the scriptures which make this plain, especially where Paul says that to seek to justify by law is to be cut off from Christ. Romans 7 is contentious when it should not be because if you investigate the subject fully then it is obvious that Paul is speaking NOT as a Christian but as one under the law, the old covenant by which men are condemned as Paul said, that the law was the ministry of death, and the ministry of condemnation, which is why a new covenant had to be put in place and then explained to "those who know the law" (Rom.7:1) why this was the case, because by the law no one could be saved. Under the law I am a "wretched man" Rom.7:24. To be a bit cheeky, if we reverse a certain scripture it then reads 'but if you are NOT led by the Spirit then you ARE under the law'.
 
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