Romans 2:10-11

[Faithful83]

Romans 2
10but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile. 11For God does not show favoritism.

Okay help me out here guys. I'm the last one to say that any purported "contradiction" in the Bible is really a contradiction, but it almost seems that verse 11 almost contradicts verse 10.

Verse 10: but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: FIRST for the Jew, THEN for the Gentile. (emphasis added)

Then in verse 11 we see:

11 For God does not show favoritism.

See the problem?

If God doesn't show favoritism, why does he give glory, honor and peace FIRST for the Jew and THEN for the Gentile? Doesn't that mean that...well...the Jews are favoritized (is that a word? Well now it is) over Gentiles?

 

[daveleau]

God, first gave His blessing to the Jews through the Law. Then, He gave His Son who first taught to the Jews and then to the gentiles. But, salvation is not skewed for any one group. Salvation is equally accessible to both Jews and gentiles provided they believe. God does not show favoritism to the Jews in salvation.

KJV of Rom 2:11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
ASV of Rom 2:11 for there is no respect of persons with God.

It will not come into consideration, at the day of judgment, of what nation men are.

"Respect of persons" is a phrase that is translated from Greek to English from one Greek word. Here is the definition of that Greek word from Strong's:
prosōpolēpsia

pros-o-pol-ape-see'-ah

From G4381; partiality, that is, favoritism: - respect of persons.

 

[mark kennedy]

Romans 2
10but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile. 11For God does not show favoritism.

Okay help me out here guys. I'm the last one to say that any purported "contradiction" in the Bible is really a contradiction, but it almost seems that verse 11 almost contradicts verse 10.

Verse 10: but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: FIRST for the Jew, THEN for the Gentile. (emphasis added)

If God doesn't show favoritism, why does he give glory, honor and peace FIRST for the Jew and THEN for the Gentile? Doesn't that mean that...well...the Jews are favoritized (is that a word? Well now it is) over Gentiles?

The is an old rule of thumb in common law called first in time is first in right. The Jews are first in time but when they rejected the Gospel it went to the Gentiles. He is telling Jewish Christian's that they should not boast against the branches that were prunned from the grapevine and that the Jewish Christians should not act with an aire of superiority. Paul elaborates about how being Jewish gives them many advantages including the fact that they received the oracles of God. The truth is that they are blessed because the gifts and callings of God are without repentance. If I might make a suggestion, try thumbing through the 9th, 10th, and 11th chapters of Romans and see if there is any favortism granted. There is another adage worth considering, to whom much is given, much is expected.

Grace and peace,
Mark

 

[zoomie71]

Romans 2
10but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile. 11For God does not show favoritism.

Okay help me out here guys. I'm the last one to say that any purported "contradiction" in the Bible is really a contradiction, but it almost seems that verse 11 almost contradicts verse 10.

Verse 10: but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: FIRST for the Jew, THEN for the Gentile. (emphasis added)

Then in verse 11 we see:

11 For God does not show favoritism.

See the problem?

If God doesn't show favoritism, why does he give glory, honor and peace FIRST for the Jew and THEN for the Gentile? Doesn't that mean that...well...the Jews are favoritized (is that a word? Well now it is) over Gentiles?

Verse 11 really summarizes what verse 10 illustrates, that God's opportunity to mankind is totally inclusive. The "first...then" is simply a sequence, not an order of preference or favortism. While it would be quite natural to feel as if the first one given the opportunity had favor (in a trmporal sense), if you look at this in the eternal sense, it's the end of the story that makes the difference. In eternity, what's important - and particularly so to all of us - is that God gave first to the Jews AND then to the Gentiles. If He'd stopped with the Jews, one could rightfully claim favoritism. That He didn't is ample proof of His love - that "He is not willing that anyone should perish, but that ALL (emphasis added) should come to repentence."

Regards,

Zoomie