Why not the 73 books per the Roman Catholic view? Or the 78 books of the Eastern Orthodox? Or the 80 of the Armenian Orthodox, or the Egyptian Copts? The 81 of the Ethiopian Orthodox?
Why only 66 books (I assume, according to the general evangelical Protestant view)?
If I may say, something interesting to consider is how within all of those groups, differing cannons does not mean that they denounce Paul...for they all include HIS works/scripture in their cannons---and on that, for anyone saying that Paul is not to be either respected or adhered to, they'd all be united in resistance.
Some of the discussion gets interesting because even in the days of Christ, the SAME discussions and debates were going on----and for those saying "Well, WE ONLY NEED JESUS'S WORDS!!!", the reality is that he would not be using the same cannon that we have today. Moreover, as the Jewish world had differences of thought in what was to be considered the "proper cannon", discussion needs to happen on what Cannon of scripture the Lord used if saying only His words are the standard.
For there has been debates amongst many when it comes to Jesus referencing the Psalms (especially Messianic Ones) and calling them "Law" and others noting that Jesus Himself often referneced things from the Talmud itself--despite the fact that it wasn't considered "Torah" or "Law" either. His discussion in Matthew 23 is evidence of that when it comes to him denouncing the Pharisees.. as discussed elsewhere in #
1 .
As the Jews often had discussion on some of the things that have been discussed here on the boards as edifying--such as debate about the role of Esther and whether or not that should be considered apart of the Cannon"
it concerns the Ketuvim (The Writings ), its understandable to argue that the definition of scripture that the Jewish people had (including Jesus) was radically different than what we have with us today....and of course, that doesn't mean one cannot be certain of what Christ/other Jews used in their early communities. Even in saying that what's considered a part of the "Holy Scriptures" today is different because of how the other Writings were not yet compiled, one cannot escape the fact that the Psalms were already in use (alongside the story of Daniel)...and thus, with the Torah (1st 5 Books) and the Prophets, there's already a good indicator of what was their version of "cannon" ....and of course, one can add to that the dynamic of the Oral Law.
For more in-depth discussion, one of the best references on the issue can be found if going online/looking something under the name of
"Writings Section of Original Bible of the Jews - a knol of Staford Rives" ( ).
As said there (for a brief excerpt):
The Sadducees only accepted the Torah as inspired, and the "other books were prized and read as edifying books." The Jews of Alexandria and Egypt accepted the Torah as inspired, but also "revered the Prophets and Writings." The Samaritans only accepted the Torah as inspired and to be revered. Thus, Sadducees and Samaritans rejected the Writings section as inspired. It was edifying.
The latter view predominated by the time of Christ. Books that claimed to be prophetic but which did not yet have any prophecy fulfilled were thus kept in the Ketuvim section to reflect their as yet unproven inspired status. The most important example and proof of this fact is the book of Daniel:
The book of Daniel is found in the third section of the Hebrew Bible known as the 'Writings,' rather than the second section 'the Prophets.' (Joel Osteen, Hope for Today Bible (2009) ...
Who accepted the Writings section as more than edifying? The Pharisees. One scholar notes that the "Pharisaic Jewish historian" gives a picture of canon where the Law, Prophets and Writings were all sacrosanct. (Hayes, supra, at 22.)
Jesus spoke of the "Law and the Prophets" never fading away. He never spoke the same about the "Writings" (Kevutim) which would have meant to adopt the Pharasaical view of the Bible. Jesus thereby deliberately drops off the expanded Pharisaical view of the Bible when Jesus speaks only of the validity of the "Law and the Prophets" (Matt. 5:17.) See also Acts 28:23.
The way the ancient Jews divided canon was also done by explaining three levels of inspiration with the Law and Prophets clearly trumping the third level. While for a Christian these three levels would all appear equal, the point is that this is how Rabbis back then explained the three tiers of the canon so that "Writings" (Ketuvim) would never be on par with the Law and Prophets. In an article entitled "Inspiration" by Rev. James Gardner from 1858, we read:
The Jews were accustomed to speak of three different degrees of inspiration. Moses, they alleged, possessed the highest degree, with whom God spake mouth to mouth; the second, according to their view, was the gift of prophecy; and the lowest, the inspiration of the Holy Ghost, from which proceeded the holy writings or Hagiograplia. (Rev. James Gardner, "Inspiration," The faiths of the world: an account of all religions and religious sects, their doctrines, rites, ceremonies, and customs (A. Fullarton & co., 1858) ...
It is possible Jesus makes a reference to the third level of inspiration Himself in Matthew 22:43 where He says that David composed Psalm 110 "in the Spirit." This would be very consistent with the Jewish view of the Psalms which belonged to the Ketuvim. They are written "in the Spirit," but this is distinct from a claim of any claim of equivalence to the Torah or Prophets.
Indeed, Job is a book that illustrates the issue the Jews had with the Ketuvim and why they place Job within the Ketuvim despite Moses authoring Job (according to Jewish tradition).
First, in Moses's account in Job, the words of the man Job are clearly not inspired like a prophet. This is because God does not appear until very late in the story, and then speaks directly only to Job, and then says 'who is this darkening' God's counsels. (Job 38:2.)[4] The immediate next verse is God angrily saying to Job: "Brace yourself like a man; I will question you." This would have to mean God rejected the accuracy of Job's earlier conversation with his friends. Hence, quoting the man Job as a prophet cannot possibly be correct. While God praises Job for his steadfast faithfulness under dire stress, God never tells us the words of the man Job are true and prophetic.
Hence, for reasons such as this, the Jews obviously did not regard the book of Job as 100% inspired. It had moments of inspiration when God speaks, but one cannot lift quotes out of context, and say words from Job, for example, are a prophetic true message from God. Thus, this is likely why it was placed in the Ketuvim section of the OT, and not even the Prophetic section even though Moses wrote it. (Moses also wrote Psalm 90, and that too is not in the prophetic section of the OT canon. Psalm 90 is placed with David's psalms written many centuries later.) Thus, Jews must have regarded certain writings, even by inspired prophets, as not worthy of being treated on par with prophecy because only distinct portions were inspired and some portions were obviously not. The solution was to place them in the Ketuvim section.
Outside of that, there's also the issue of how Christ celerated Holidays not found in the Prophets or the Torah, as seen in his celebration of Channakuh---recorded in the Book of I-IV Maccabbessa and condoned by many Jews at the time.
On the ways "Law" seemed to be defiend differently, some things to consider are John 10:31-33, within its larger context:
John 10:20-33
Further Conflict Over Jesus’ Claims
22 Then came the Festival of Dedication[a] at Jerusalem. It was winter, 23 and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade. 24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying, “How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.”
25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe. The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me, 26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”
31 Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him, 32 but Jesus said to them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?”
33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[c]? 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.”
With John 10:31-33, remember that the Jews had already made clear that they claimed the ENTIRE Torah was theirs and that they were going to stone Jesus for it when he seemed to break it for claiming He was God. They felt that the Law God had given them in Exodus 20 was being broken when it came to Jesus doing what it was that they were going to stone Him for previously in John 8:59...and that issue was self-identificaiton as God, which they understood to be blasphemy. Their understanding of BLASPHEMY was based on how claiming to be God and, specifically, pronouncing God's name (as Yeshua had just done) were punishable by death (Leviticus 24:15-16 and Mishna Sanhedrin 7:5, "The blasphemer is not guilty until he pronounces the NAME.")
With John 10:34-36, the phrase "Your Torah" is something that is often read without other considerations. For here,
"Torah" means
"Tanakh, " since the passage quoted is from the Psalms, not the Pentateuch. When Jesus says "You people are
Elohim", here Greek
theoi ("gods"), in the Hebrew text of Psalm 82 the word
"elohim" may be translated "God," "gods," "judges" or "angels." Yeshua's rabbinic mode of Bible citation implies the context of the whole psalm (Matthew 2:6), which plays on these meanings
:
"Elohim [God] stands in the congregation of EL [God]:
He judges among the elohim [judges/angels/gods]: How long
will you judge unjustly?..I have said , "You are elohim [judges/angels/gods],
All of you are sons of the Most High."
Nevertheless you will all die like a man
And fall like one of the princes.'
Arise, Elohim [God (the Judge)], and judge the earth,
For you will inherit all the nations." (Psalm 82:1-2, 6-8).
And again, to be clear, it needs to be understood that in Judaism the citation of a Scripture text implies the whole context, not merely the quoted words. And with what Jesus quoted on Psalm 82, the first and last "Elohim" mean "God," but the others should be rendered "judges," "gods" or "angels." Yeshua's wordplay implies a rabbinic-style kal v' chomer argument (Matthew 6:30): if humans, who do evil works as they "judge unjustly" are elohim, how much more is Yeshua, who does good works (John 10:25, John 10:32-33, John 10:37-38, etc) Elohim; and if "all of you are sons of the Most High," how much more does the description "Son of God" apply to Yeshua.
But it is interesting to see the ways that Jesus would show His Divinity by referring to Himself in the Psalms---things that are not exclusively based IN TORAH....
Moving beyond that, one can also consider again John 15:24-26
John 15:24-26
24 If I had not done among them the works no one else did, they would not be guilty of sin. As it is, they have seen, and yet they have hated both me and my Father. 25 But this is to fulfill what is written in their Law: ‘They hated me without reason.’[a]
The phrase "Their law ..." stresses the inordinate regard the priests had for the external features of Moses' law (which is what Christ was frequently against when it came to the Pharisee's interpretation of the Law in legalistic/"Letter of the Law" thinking rather than the intent of the Law---Love, which is what God has repeatedly noted is the TRUE Law. With the religious leaders, it was "theirs" in the sense of the affectionate regard they professed for it, while actually denying it by their sinful conduct. Note that the quotation ascribed to "the law" was not from the Pentateuch, thus revealing that the term "law" was a reference to the entire Old Testament.