Well yes, again oughts apply to actions. If one wants to live and discovers that his life requires a certain value, then one ought to act to gain this value. That's precisely what a moral code is: a set of values to guide one's actions and choices.
Well, no. Oughts also apply also to attitudes. One
ought to desire that which one really needs. If morality is objective (as I believe it is) then it cannot be otherwise.
Hume got a lot of stuff wrong. One of the things he got wrong was in thinking that morality is deontological. It's true that a fact is not the same thing as an ought. For an ought you need a purpose and a standard by which to judge actions in relation to that purpose. It is the fact that man's life, the factual life requirements, are both the standard and the purpose.
"It is the fact that man's life, the
factual life requirements, are both the standard and the purpose." ?
Do you mean man's
factual needs are the
standards necessary to live a human life? Objective (moral) standards, as opposed to arbitrary standards, e.g., the length of a meter, are
a priori knowledge.
A priori knowledge, usually inferred from self-evident premises, is acquired through reason rather than observation. Example:
Man is
naturally a social creature.
Social creatures live in organized communities.
Therefore, man
needs to live in organized communities.
Who defines man's nature? Individual thinkers do.
If true then Objectivism leads to societal chaos requiring the use of governmental force to impose order.
If every thinker defines human nature then no one defines human nature for others.
All men are a thinking animals.
Every man defines his human nature.
No man defines man's nature for all men.
If two men disagree about something, then there's an objective method to learn who is right and who is wrong. The alternative is to accept another's ideas without validation, just on their say so. There are no authorities on the truth.
? If true than morality cannot be objective and we're back to the existence of
a priori knowledge.
I've already said that there is no such thing as a priori knowledge. We reject such a notion on the grounds that it commits the fallacy of the stolen concept.
Are not conclusions reached logically rather than empirically
a priori knowledge? Of course they are. One does not
observe the rules of logic. The rules of logic appeal to reason and the first principles for their validity.