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Do you believe that the unregenerate, who is 100% in the flesh, can do anything pleasing to God??true
thank God for regeneration
Christ in us is our only hope - Colossians 1:27
imo Jesus is talking to unregenerates - there is no regeneration before the crossPaul is not describing the unregenerate. And Jesus is talking to believers.
i believe any man - regenerate or unregenerate - can desire to please GodDo you believe that the unregenerate, who is 100% in the flesh, can do anything pleasing to God??
If there's no regeneration before the cross, then nobody in the OT was saved.imo Jesus is talking to unregenerates - there is no regeneration before the cross
imo Paul is talking to regenerates as he does here: Colossians 1:10, Romans 12:1, Ephesians 4:1, 1 Thessalonians 2:12
You've described Pelagianism. It's considered heretical in orthodoxy.i believe any man - regenerate or unregenerate - can desire to please God
but any man - regenerate or unregenerate - can't please God in the flesh
i don't know what to think about percentages because God doesn't specify
God can come upon a donkey to speak His words to a prophet, and upon wicked king saul to prophesy, so imo there CAN be an instance where the Holy Spirit causes any man to do something pleasing to God no matter what state they are in
Intense grief over this very matter once seized a young Frenchman named Francis de Sales. Unsure of whether he was or was not among the elect, he reportedly cried out to God
"Whatever happens, Lord, may I at least love you in this life if I cannot love you in eternity."
You've described Pelagianism. It's considered heretical in orthodoxy.
Sorry, but not a straw man. Pelagianism is the belief that Adam's sin didn't taint man and that man can still choose spiritual good without interference of the Holy Spirit. That's what he stated, in essence.That's a classic example of a strawman argument. Rejecting the Calvinist idea that the holy spirit must regenerate a person *before* faith is not the same thing as embracing the heresy that man, without any grace from God at all, by his own work or merit, can achieve salvation.
Do you believe that the unregenerate, who is 100% in the flesh, can do anything pleasing to God??
What was the motivation for all of this? Hard to say, I know. But we do know that without faith, it's impossible to please God, and those in the flesh cannot do so.I'm pretty sure there is already an extensive forum discussion on precisely that topic, "On Free Will."
I won't repost all my posts under that thread here, but here are some brief examples of people pleasing God. (Note that no one can earn salvation or be 'perfectly pleasing' to God without faith, which is another matter entirely.)
Scripture mentions many 'natural men' (that is, without faith in Christ who have not received the Holy Spirit) doing certain things that were spiritually good or glorified God:
Egyptian midwives:... And because the midwives feared God, he gave them families of their own." Ex 1:15-21 (Does God not find the act of fearing Him to be pleasing?)
Ahab's (temporary) humility:...Ahab has humbled himself...I Kings 21:49 (Do you not think that God finds humility in man pleasing?)
Cornelius: "...He and all his family were devout and God-fearing; he gave generously to those in need and prayed to God regularly...The angel answered, “Your prayers and gifts to the poor have come up as a memorial offering before God." Acts 10:1-4 (God doesn't find generosity, God fearing, and prayer to Him pleasing? Why would it be considered a memorial offering if God did not accept it as an offering?)
Good Samaritan: ... when he saw him, he had compassion on him....“The one who had mercy on him.” Jesus told him, “Go and do likewise.”" Lk 10:33-37 (Compassion and mercy are not pleasing to God? What of Matt 9:13, Hos 6:6, etc.?)
Nebuchadnezzar glorifying God: "... It is my pleasure to tell you about the miraculous signs and wonders that the Most High God has performed for me. How great are his signs, how mighty his wonders! His kingdom is an eternal kingdom; his dominion endures from generation to generation." Dan 4:1-3
... Then I praised the Most High; I honored and glorified him who lives forever...I, Nebuchadnezzar, praise and exalt and glorify the King of heaven, because everything he does is right and all his ways are just. And those who walk in pride he is able to humble." Dan 4:34-37 (God does not find praise, and man humbly recognizing His sovereignty, pleasing in any way?)
There are many other specific examples in scripture, and some general comments as well about the general ability of man to obey, seek God, and do right. [None of this contradicts the fact that no human can -perfectly- obey, seek God, and do right, and that all have fallen short of the glory of God.]
Mankind seeking God: Paul said, "... His purpose (will) was for the nations to seek after God and perhaps feel their way toward him and find him--though he is not far from any one of us."(Acts 17:26-27)
General ability to do what is right: "And you, son of man, say to your fellow citizens, 'The righteousness of a righteous man will not deliver him in the day of his transgression, and as for the wickedness of the wicked, he will not stumble because of it in the day when he turns from his wickedness; whereas a righteous man will not be able to live by his righteousness on the day when he commits sin.' If I tell a righteous person that they will surely live, but then they trust in their righteousness and do evil, none of the righteous things that person has done will be remembered; they will die for the evil they have done." Ezek 33:12-13
General ability to do what is right: "For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God’s sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous. (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law. They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times even defending them.) This will take place on the day when God judges people’s secrets through Jesus Christ, as my gospel declares." Rom 2:13-16
Etc.
Posts #275, #285, #311, #312, and other posts under "On Free Will" have more on this topic.
All of the extremely sorrowfulanecdotes mean nothing. If Reformed Theology is true, then it's true. How people misconstrue it does not change anything.
No disagreement from me. That's why these sob stories are pointless.The gospel is 100% true. How people misconstrue that doesn't make it less true.
Theories of man (especially when they, like Calvinism, or Reformed doctrine if you prefer, has many variations and off-shoots) should never place themselves as superior to the gospel. For example, consider all the many teachings which some Christians hold, but often teach as 100% truth vs. disputable matters and binding on all other Christians: one must rest on Saturday, can't eat pork, must believe all 5 'TULIP' points, must hold to 4 point Calvinism, must take communion every week, can only go to a specific denomination, can only read the KJV, etc.
All these theories must be examined on their own merits as to whether they are true in part or whole or are false. None can be declared 100% true by axiom. Nor do any of these sub-teachings get an automatic pass if they are misconstrued, as division in the church is problematic. Rather, the focus should always be on unity in the spirit - that we can hold differing sub-beliefs and traditions, but all are united in faith through Christ alone.
how many types of calvinism are there
What was the motivation for all of this? Hard to say, I know. But we do know that without faith, it's impossible to please God, and those in the flesh cannot do so.
So God has two types of things that please Him? Please explain.I already addressed that in the other thread. The greek term in Rom 8:8 is 'aréskō'.
It means to satisfy or make good on something (so as to please and win favor) because you met their expectation and are in moral agreement with them.
That is far more specific than the English term 'please' - it's referring to a complete satisfaction and moral agreement, so as to earn merit or favor. No one can be in moral agreement with God and gain His favor without faith!
In Heb 11:6, the term is 'euarestéō'
Euarestéō' means to please or gratify by giving what is acceptable. In context, the passage is speaking of salvation - becoming an heir of righteousness. What can we give that is acceptable for salvation and righteousness? Nothing but faith!
This term is also more specific than the English term 'please.'
Furthermore, those passages and others speak of the necessity of faith to well-please God and become heirs of righteousness - none of them are saying that man can't respond to the gospel in faith, or that fallen man can't do anything good that can generally please God.
ok can we start with free will?
So God has two types of things that please Him? Please explain.
Okay. I don't think you can support that. The only thing I've seen where it states He's well pleased is in relation to His Son. But if you can show where He's pleased by anything the unregenerate does, I'll certainly look it over.He has many things that please Him (mercy, sacrifice, obedience, praise, humility, doing good, etc.) He only has one thing that well-pleases Him to grant us salvation, fully satisfying Him so as to grant us His favor so as to make us heirs of righteousness (living in faith.)
The English term 'please' simply means to act according to the pleasure, wish, or will of someone. There are many examples of people in scripture doing things that God approves of or asked for, and examples of mankind, in general, to seek Him or obey (but never perfectly.)
Okay. I don't think you can support that. The only thing I've seen where it states He's well pleased is in relation to His Son. But if you can show where He's pleased by anything the unregenerate does, I'll certainly look it over.
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