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Prove that God is good

Far Side Of the Moon

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I would say that God is good in my opinion because:

1. He has given life to me, even though I have done nothing to deserve it.

But I tell you, love your enemies, bless those who curse you, do good to those who hate you, and pray for those who mistreat you and persecute you, that you may be children of your Father who is in heaven. For he makes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the just and the unjust.
Mat. 5:44-45

2. He has given free will.

3. He don’t do anything evil.


1) No one asked to be here

2) the fact we were just placed on this planet without any say, negates our free will.

3) I remember reading one scripture where it says, he causes the light and darkness or something like that
 
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Thir7ySev3n

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1) No one asked to be here

2) the fact we were just placed on this planet without any say, negates our free will.

3) I remember reading one scripture where it says, he causes the light and darkness or something like that

1. This is a vacuous statement. Your existence is a necessary precursor to asking or being asked anything. How do you expect to ask to be here without first being here? Of course, if you are insane and have no interest left in "being here", suicide is always an option. But presumably you were alive when you wrote that post, so it is apparent that you think it is better to be than not to be.

2. See 1. Also, as a contingent being your free will requires your existence; without existence there is no will of any kind. I hope this isn't news.

3. The verse you are referring to says He brings good and causes calamity; the latter is a form of God's just retribution. See my earlier response in this thread for a comprehensive address of this issue.
 
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Far Side Of the Moon

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That's not really very helpful.

Someone may have suffered great tragedy in their lives and their question might be, "how do I know God is good when he's done this to me? Can you prove it to me?" They may be looking at all the suffering in the world and asking, "if God is good and loves us, why does he allow this?"
These are valid questions which many have asked, in fact I was once told that THE most common question that unbelievers ask is, "why does God allow suffering?" To take the attitude that they are lost if they are questioning the goodness of God and don't have much spiritual understanding, does not help them to understand, or answer the question.
Would Jesus have answered such a question by saying, "you are probably beyond help", and shaking the dust from his feet?
Right, I agree with everything you just said.
 
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Far Side Of the Moon

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1. This is a vacuous statement. Your existence is a necessary precursor to asking or being asked anything. How do you expect to ask to be here without first being here? Of course, if you are insane and have no interest left in "being here", suicide is always an option. But presumably you were alive when you wrote that post, so it is apparent that you think it is better to be than not to be.

2. See 1. Also, as a contingent being your free will requires your existence; without existence there is no will of any kind. I hope this isn't news.

3. The verse you are referring to says He brings good and causes calamity; the latter is a form of God's just retribution. See my earlier response in this thread for a comprehensive address of this issue.

1) not really, the Bible says he knew us before we were created..so if he knew me and some other people ...or if he were fair and showed us the life we were in for and then asked us if we wanted to be here..some would have said no.. And that would be free will.

And I feel this answer is suffice for the s second one

Third, alright another scripture says he creates a pot for destruction and another for decoration, he harder ed pharoars heart and even said that itd been better if Judas wasn't born...and he called him a son of perdition before he was born.
 
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Thir7ySev3n

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1) not really, the Bible says he knew us before we were created..so if he knew me and some other people ...or if he were fair and showed us the life we were in for and then asked us if we wanted to be here..some would have said no.. And that would be free will.

And I feel this answer is suffice for the s second one

Third, alright another scripture says he creates a pot for destruction and another for decoration, he harder ed pharoars heart and even said that itd been better if Judas wasn't born...and he called him a son of perdition before he was born.

I've already answered this comprehensively in my response addressing God's providence, but here we go again. If you still have questions regarding this, I would be delighted to resolve those potential problems for you as I've rounded out my knowledge of this subject over many years.

In creating a universe that would accommodate truly free moral agents, God would have an infinite number of options available to Him with an equally infinite amount of possible outcomes. From what we know about the nature of God, He would naturally choose to create the world which would produce the greatest possible outcome. What is the greatest possible outcome? There is none other than that world which provides the circumstances which leads the largest number of souls to freely accept the grace of God through the salvation provided in Jesus Christ. From what we know about God's nature, particularly that God is omnibenevolent, omniscient and omnipotent, this can be deductively inferred as follows:

1. Because God is omnibenevolent, He would desire to create the world which would produce the greatest potential good
2. Because God is omniscient, He would know which world would produce the greatest potential good
3. Because God is omnipotent, He would be able to create the world which would produce the greatest potential good

Therefore the world in which we exist is that which would produce the great potential good. To repeat, this greatest good is the largest number of souls that would freely surrender themselves to God and receive His grace.

Again, God would have had a literally infinite number of options present of worlds to create with an equally infinite number of outcomes. By His perfect nature, however, God would not create a world at random in which His will to create concurrently free and absolutely loved creatures was not accomplished. So God would have to narrow His options to feasible worlds which accommodate creaturely freedom and yet lovingly provides the circumstances that permits each person who would freely choose God to do so. Knowing God, once He had narrowed the options to the assortment of great results, He would naturally choose the greatest of these possible outcomes. This is not to say God is predestining our decisions, but the creation of the world which would provide the social, environmental and personal circumstances that are necessary for each individual, in their own times and places as God foreknew, to interact with each other, their environment and God in a way that corresponds to their psychology/personality, ultimately and inevitably leading to the salvation of those who would freely respond affirmatively to God's grace in whatever circumstance they find themselves. In this sense, then, God can literally be said to have elected those who are saved, though their choices as well as those who reject God are entirely free.

As is stated in Acts 17, God placed us within our context because He knew that if given that context we would freely choose to accept Him by the testimony and in-dwelling of the Holy Spirit. It could then be rightly asked "well then could God have not provided a precise set of circumstances that would be those which are necessary to win the soul of every person?", and the answer would be no. For some people, there is no such set of circumstances that would be sufficient for them to freely receive the salvation of Christ by the Holy Spirit's testimony. This is affirmed doubly in the Scriptures. First, in Daniel 12:10 concerning the course through to the end times Jesus says: "Many will be purified, made spotless and refined, but the wicked will continue to be wicked. None of the wicked will understand, but those who are wise will understand." Again, concerning God's providence Paul says in Romans 9:22: "What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?"

It may also seem confusing to think that God has among His human creation "objects of wrath" which He prepares for destruction, until you comprehend these points and Scriptures collectively. There are some souls which God would create that will freely reject Him under any and all circumstances, but are still necessary in the grand scheme of world history to play a role in drawing all those who will be freely saved into that salvation. God Himself illustrates this wonderfully in His statement to Pharaoh in Exodus 9:15-16: "For by now I could have stretched out my hand and struck you and your people with a plague that would have wiped you off the earth. But I have raised you up for this very purpose, that I might show you my power and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth."

See Acts 17:26-27, Genesis 50:20, Jeremiah 25:8-14 and Judges 14:4 for more Scriptural examples on the providence of God and how it works.
 
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DeepWater

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Honesty, Love, Mercy, Compassion, Integrity, Goodness, Virtue, and Wisdom are all "good".
And they exist ONLY because each of them are God's essence.
Without these found on the earth, all that would be here would be lust, hate, deceit, pain, and despair.
However, because God exists, his essence, as defined by wisdom, goodness, mercy, compassion, integrity, virtue, and love, are found on the earth to balance out and resist and overthrow evil, as you find it in hate, lust, deceit, pain, and despair.
The fact that "good" exists, is only because God exists.
 
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Emmy

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Dear Achilles6129. God is Love, and love cannot be anything else but GOOD. In Matthew 22: 35-40: Jesus our Saviour tells us: " The first and great Commandment is: Love God with all thy heart, with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
The second is like it: love thy neighbour as thyself." In verse 40 we are told: " On these two Commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets." In Luke 10: 25-28: we read: " Jesus is asked Master, what must I do to inherit eternal life?" (life with God our Heavenly Father) Jesus answered: " Thou shall Love thy God with all thy heart, with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, do this and you shall live, and also love thy neighbour as thyself."
To have eternal life with our God who is all Love, we have to choose God. God will never force us to do anything we do not want to do. God wants our love freely given and no conditions made, God is Love and His Love is forever.
We all know that God wants us to " Repent and be Born Again," give up our selfish desires and want to belong to our Heavenly Father, God is Love and God wants our love. I say this with love, Achilles. Greetings from Emmy, your sister in Christ.
 
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alexandriaisburning

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It is my faith that God will always do the good thing. However, men can ascribe acts to God that are not His acts.

There is no need for faith in this regard. God will always do the "good" thing because God is good, not because God chooses to do "good" things. It is logically impossible that God could "not" do the good, for it would require God to not be God.
 
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alexandriaisburning

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It may be possible. It's not a fool's errand. It may prove the real God.

If that's your belief, continue in your vain quest; it will end in failure.

God is a thing.

I disagree. To call God a "thing" is to suggest that God participates in existence in the same what that every "thing" else does. To be "thing", we would be able to say that God has a participation within (and necessary reliance upon) "existence" which is common to the genus of "things". But while we will say that God exists, we must moreover affirm that God is also existence; God is God's own existence, but this existence is not the existence that other "things" share, but the actual outworking of God's existence. God does not derive existence from an external source, as if it is something that defines God by attribution; no, God exists as the doing of God's existence itself. So in this very important sense, God is certainly not a "thing."

Gratuitous assertion. Prove it.

Prove that I'm wrong. Prove that God is a "thing", that God derives existence in the same way that other "things" do. To call God a "thing" is to lump God into the same ontological dependency that other "things" share, which is certainly an undermining of any traditional understanding of the Christian God, not to mention a serious misunderstanding of some very elementary philosophical concepts.

Says you. Why should I believe you? Prove your assertions.

I'll prove mine once you prove yours. You were not shy in throwing around assertions. If you can prove them, do so and then I will prove mine.

You are redefining the word "good". On what authority do you do so? None. "Good" means what it means in English. If we have to redefine the word "good" to talk about God, then the original question "prove God is good" is meaningless.

Again, you misunderstand some very basic philosophical categories. As I've already demonstrated numerous times in this tread, there is a fundamental and necessary difference between what we mean by "good" when applied to human behavior and moral assumptions, and what we mean by "good" in reference to the nature of God. In the former, "good" is subjective determination based on moral assumptions and causal analyses; it is a conclusion based on the adjudication of a behavior or outcome against some assumed standard.

With God, however, no such thing can be done. There is no standard against which God's goodness (whether we are speaking of inherent goodness, or the analysis of God's actions) can be measured, for if God is good, it is God's own nature against which such an analysis must be made. But as God is eternal, simple, and immutable, the assumption of God's goodness must be essential with the existence of God. That is, if we are to say that God is good, this goodness must be part and parcel of what it means to be God qua God, for goodness could not be something which God, in eternal undivided immutability, accrues by virtue of action or self-expression. To the contrary, any divine action or self-expression would have to be understood as immutably "good", for God would be incapable of anything else by virtue of being God.

Again, as I argued before, when we speak of God qua God, we cannot apply attributes to God as we would to that which is other-than God. To do so only reveals that our understanding of God is that of the "biggest person", the ineffable mystery that is truly God.

These attributes are important. A thing that lacks them is not God.

They may have some minimal importance, but you are overstating the importance quite significantly. While a thing that lacks them certainly isn't God, you haven't demonstrated that a "thing" (see my point above) that does possess them is God. As I mentioned before, we can easily perform a mental experiment in which we apply these attributes to any number of things. The possession of these attributes does not create any exclusivity by which to differentiate the possessors, and so we would be left with a pantheon of super-things, but not yet be any closer to an understanding of God qua God.

A thing that has all of them is God, by definition.

By your definition, but not by any other. A few basic readings in elementary theological studies would help you a great deal.

In Scripture, God thought his almightyness, eternity, omniscience and omnipresence were important enough to include them in various passages from his own mouth. Christian prayers have noted those things since time immemorial. They are important.
You say they are not important, and dismiss my attention to them, preferring to substitute what you think is important. That's swell, but it isn't persuasive.

I didn't say they were unimportant; I said they were perhaps the least important when it comes to discussing the nature of God qua God. There is a subtle, yet extremely important difference between the two. Try reading a bit more carefully next time.

No, you end up with God. A big human is not omnipresent or omniscient or eternal or omnipotent.

But the biggest human *could be* omnipresent, omniscient, timeless, and omnipotent. This would not make them God.

What does that even mean? Christianity (mostly) asserts that God is a Trinity - and the Trinity is a mystery. There isn't any simplicity at all in eternity, or omnipresence. God is not simple. The Christian God isn't even a monad. Divine simplicity does not exist. If God were easy, people would not spend years of their life studying him.

:doh:Seriously, read some basic theology.

When I speak of divine simplicity, I am speaking of the necessary theological premise that God is not composed of distinct parts, or even distinct properties; to the contrary, God is essentially simple, so much so that we cannot even distinguish between God's essence and existence. In this sense, God is not a "being" in the sense that other beings are beings, deriving their existence from another source (or participating within a common genus of existence); rather, God is the absolute ground of being and also the doing of God's existence itself.

This, ultimately, is why the "attributes" you use to define God are insufficient, for they are applicable only when we speak of God within the assumption of the creation. Apart from the assumption of creation, these attributes are not terribly meaningful, and really only serve to create distinctions within the divine nature when we are thinking of God qua God. And this is why we can certainly imagine an omnipotent, omniscient, omnipresent, and timeless superhuman, for we do so from the perspective of an domain of existence in which these attributes have application. Apart from this domain of existence, in the eternal act-of-self-existence that is the simplicity of God, they have no place whatsoever.

You have prejudged the case. This saves you the time of having to discuss it with me.

I didn't prejudge the case. I read your statements, judged them lacking, and provided my conclusions. Perhaps you should offer stronger arguments next time.

If your "philosophical training" leads you to that conclusion, it wasn't very good.

I'm not quite sure that you are in position to be making judgements of this kind, given your severe lack of familiarity with basic theological concepts.

Too bad for you, then, that the Hebrew and Christian God described himself so often precisely in terms of these unique attributes

So there are two Gods we have to define now? This is getting tedious :doh:

I'll stick with the God of Job, who has stretched out the sky and knows where Leviathan roams, and with the God of Jesus, who has numbered every hair of your head, who knew the prophets in their mother's wombs and who makes the deer calve. No superman can do those things.

Why could a superman not do those things? To borrow your favorite phrase, "prove your assertions".

No we can't. We can't imagine two omnipotences. It doesn't work, by definition.

We can't? Why not? Who's definitions are we using?

Omnipresence. Eternity. How does on "imagine" these things, let alone apply them to ourselves?

Well, we do it every time we use the words. We can't demonstrate what they mean, so we apply them to ourselves, multiply them by a sufficient factor, and then say that they are true of God. But the words do not signify the actuality of God, what God is in God's own self-existence. They are feeble attempts on our part to describe the relationship of the ineffable, self-existent God to the contingent universe.

However, as the content of these attributes is firmly rooted within the contingency of the universe, it is quite simple to apply them mentally to any number of "things." As the "proof" of such assertions is equally impossible whether we apply the attributes to our notion of "God" or to an infinite number of imagined beings, the usefulness for defining "God" is equally negligible.

You have asserted a fact that is not true. We cannot, after all, imagine the attributes of eternity, omnipresence, omnipotence and omniscience to anything in creation.

Sure we can. We do it every time we think of these terms. As they are attributes, and attributes modify "things", we will always imagine a "thing" to which these attributes are applied. Whether we call this thing "God" or "headphones" or "XYZ", the thing we are imagining is certainly not God qua God (as God is not a thing, see above).

Whatever unified those four attributes would of necessity by God.

This is not true at all. We can imagine any number of things in which these attributes would be united, and it would in no way bring us closer to identifying "God".

The best we could do is note the apparent omnipresence, eternity and omnipotence of an abstract blind "natural law" like the pantheists and natural evolutionists do, but in this natural law, omniscience is still absent. You are right that, in the literally true sense, natural law + omniscience IS God, by anybody's definition, but the fact of omniscience removes the randomness and blindness from it, turning pantheism into highest order monotheism. And to talk with a secular scientist that is what you would have to do to prove God to him. He's already got natural law, which is random but real, everywhere, controlling all things. He's three quarters of the way there. You would have to prove omniscience to him. That's the hard part. The miracles God has left for all to look at help.

This analogy is pretty poor, but to keep with it, omniscience would also be present, for it would be equivalent to all of the information in the universe. So again, you've proven my point that we can imagine these attributes applied to any number of things without these things being God.
 
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Vicomte13

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If that's your belief, continue in your vain quest; it will end in failure.

You wrote something long. I did not read it. Your first writing to me dripped with contempt. I told you I was not going to have any further conversation with you, and I meant it. You belittled me, and I, in turn, am not interested in you, and will not read your posts. Goodbye.
 
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Not_By_Chance

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First of all, I must say that it saddens me to hear Christians arguing like this. I think we all need to step back and have a little more humility - after all, we know so little in the grand scheme of things.

To get back to the original question - it's not possible to prove anything about God, but He has given us some clues as to His nature. When God came to earth as a man, He demonstrated His compassion for those who were suffering and He demonstrated His power with the miracles He performed, such that His disciples found themselves asking who was He that even the wind and waves obeyed His command. The mystery is that somehow suffering has to exist in this broken world in which we live, but it wasn't always like that and it won't always be like that either. Even Jesus, with all His power, had to suffer terribly in order to save us from our sins. If you look at the life of Jesus, would you say that He was "good?" Is He the sort of friend you would want to have; someone who in the end voluntarily allowed Himself to be slaughtered in order to save you? If you can answer these questions in the affirmative, then you will know in your heart that God is good because Jesus told us, "Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work." John 14:10.

One final thought - the word "good" has some many different meanings (just look at the Oxford English Dictionary for example). How does anyone define what is good - is it purely subjective or is there an absolute standard by which to judge whether something is good or not and if so, where does that standard come from?
 
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Achilles6129

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When God came to earth as a man, He demonstrated His compassion for those who were suffering

I imagine there were a lot of suffering people on the planet that Christ didn't heal. Why did he heal some and not others?

If you look at the life of Jesus, would you say that He was "good?"

I would contend that if we took the entirety of what Christ says in the four gospels that most people would not find him to be good at all by their standards.
 
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Achilles6129

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God has written a set of Law in our hearts which becomes our conscience. That says our basic judgement of good from evil is ultimately from God.

So how does that square with Scripture which says that "every imagination of the thoughts of [man's] heart was only evil continually" (Gen. 6:5), "he was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not" (Jn. 1:10)?

Also, if you know what good is, then you know what God is, since God is the definition of good. Therefore, if good is internal to you, then God is internal to you. And if God is internal to natural man (as you seem to have implied) then the gospel of Jesus Christ is completely unnecessary, for the gospel of Jesus Christ claims that God is external to natural man and only becomes internal through the gospel of Jesus Christ.
 
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Achilles6129

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However, men can ascribe acts to God that are not His acts.

Every action that happens is somehow related to God because God allows it to happen. So every act can be said to be an act of God in some sense.
 
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Achilles6129

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There is, in fact, a comprehensive answer to this question that should satisfy anyone genuinely seeking an understanding and a certainty of the goodness of God. I have established a scripturally sound cumulative argument that approaches the question with three logically successive points:

1. The human capacity to apprehend objective moral values and duties.
2. The Providence of God in creating the world which would produce the greatest potential good, and,
3. The incarnation and life, death and resurrection of Christ.

I disagree with #1 and #2.

#1) - I don't believe there are such things as "objective moral values" and think that you have a very long way to go to prove your case. As a matter of fact, I would think that #1 would directly contradict Scripture which states that "every imagination of the thoughts of [natural man's] heart was only evil continually," unless you believe that that passage no longer applies.

#2) - This definitely cannot be correct. Are we really to believe that the "greatest possible good" was Noah alone being righteous out of an entire planet? Are we to believe that the "greatest possible good" was Joshua and Caleb alone entering into the Promised Land out of the entire generation of adult Israelites, which numbered in the hundreds of thousands? And are we to believe that the "greatest possible good" is the vast majority of human beings going away into eternal damnation while only the few are saved (Mt. 7:13-14, Lk. 12:32, etc.)?

Thus, if God wanted to deceive us, being the designer of our cognitive functions and capacities in their entirety, He would not even have to try. All God would have to do to deceive humankind is provide them cognitive capacities so limited that they would be absolutely unable to apprehend His deception if He were to flaunt His malevolent motives before their eyes all day long. So what you have to ask yourself is this: If God wanted to deceive me, why would He provide me the cognitive ability to discriminate between truth and falsehood with such accuracy that I would be able to discover His deception? The truth is, doubt exists for only two reasons: Ignorance and free agency. Either we are simply lacking in knowledge and unable to understand why God is abundantly worthy of our absolute trust, or we simply choose to deny Him and His testimony. This decision or ignorant response of doubt never results from rational investigation.

Let me ask you this: what do you make of God deceiving people in Scripture?

" 11 For this reason God will send upon them [k]a deluding influence so that they will believe what is false, 12 in order that they all may be judged who did not believe the truth, but took pleasure in wickedness." 2 Th. 2:11-12 (NASB)

"19 Micaiah said, “Therefore, hear the word of the Lord. I saw the Lord sitting on His throne, and all the host of heaven standing by Him on His right and on His left. 20 The Lord said, ‘Who will entice Ahab to go up and fall at Ramoth-gilead?’ And one said this while another said that. 21 Then a spirit came forward and stood before the Lord and said, ‘I will entice him.’ 22 The Lord said to him, ‘How?’ And he said, ‘I will go out and be a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.’ Then He said, ‘You are to entice him and also prevail. Go and do so.’ 23 Now therefore, behold, the Lord has put a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all these your prophets; and the Lord has proclaimed disaster against you.”" 1 Ki. 22:19-23 (NASB)
 
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Paul of Eugene OR

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There is no need for faith in this regard. God will always do the "good" thing because God is good, not because God chooses to do "good" things. It is logically impossible that God could "not" do the good, for it would require God to not be God.

Its still faith. You have expressed your faith as to the nature of God. Equivalently, you have postulated an axiom.
 
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Paul of Eugene OR

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Every action that happens is somehow related to God because God allows it to happen. So every act can be said to be an act of God in some sense.

Maybe you are right about that. But when a computer calculates the value of pi . . . . 3.14159265358 etc etc . . . is the next digit something God sets in place, or is that something simply determined by the nature of geometry and mathematics?
 
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Thir7ySev3n

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I disagree with #1 and #2.

#1) - I don't believe there are such things as "objective moral values" and think that you have a very long way to go to prove your case. As a matter of fact, I would think that #1 would directly contradict Scripture which states that "every imagination of the thoughts of [natural man's] heart was only evil continually," unless you believe that that passage no longer applies.

There are two things to say about this. First, your statement that you do not believe in objective moral values does not constitute an argument against their existence, but in isolation, as it is conveyed, presents only an autobiographical statement. Objective moral values and duties are grounded in the nature of God; moral values are constituted by God's character, and moral duties are constituted by God's commands, which are necessarily consistent with His nature. If you want to doubt the absolute goodness of God, I have already demonstrated the absurdity of this intellectual exercise in my argument concerning our comprehensive origin (including our cognitive capacities) from that same God. If God's existence is taken as granted, this is unarguable.

Secondly, regarding the account of man's ubiquitous sinfulness in Genesis 6:5, this is not an argument against my first point as my first argument is an ontological argument, not an epistomologcal one. I argue that objective moral values and duties are grounded in the character and commands of God as revealed, as is the only rational position to hold as the comprehensively designed subject of this God. I do not argue that man apprehends objective moral values and duties flawlessly, only that he apprehends them at all, which I affirm are revelations of the Holy Spirit within man (Romans 2:15). It is undeniable that man apprehends this realm, regardless of how he comes to know of these values (revelation through society, culture, nature or direct divine revelation). To make your counter-argument even more insubstantial, exhibiting examples of man's inconsistency with objective moral values and duties does not demonstrate that man does not apprehend them, only that he does not obey them. There are examples of this in every single human being still living to this day; knowledge does not logically entail perfect consistency or obedience.

#2) - This definitely cannot be correct. Are we really to believe that the "greatest possible good" was Noah alone being righteous out of an entire planet? Are we to believe that the "greatest possible good" was Joshua and Caleb alone entering into the Promised Land out of the entire generation of adult Israelites, which numbered in the hundreds of thousands? And are we to believe that the "greatest possible good" is the vast majority of human beings going away into eternal damnation while only the few are saved (Mt. 7:13-14, Lk. 12:32, etc.)?

The sole premise of your counter-argument is argument from ignorance; this is not a sound argument against the providence of God for the aforementioned purpose. Neither asking what we would like to believe, nor referring to our ignorance concerning the necessary or ostensibly gratuitous nature of these world events demonstrates that God's providence in creating a world of genuinely free creatures couldn't necessarily be pervaded by such evils (again, see Acts 17:26-27, Genesis 50:20, Jeremiah 25:8-14, Judges 14:4, Exodus 9:15-16, and Romans 8:28). From these Scriptures we see that God assigns us our times and places in which we live, works all things for the good of those who will respond to Him, utilizes even the evil plots and lives of those who reject Him, and sometimes this includes suffering of either the trivial or intense affect.

This is not to say that such events are not, regardless, disastrous. However, the Scriptures do explicitly convey that God had His salvation plan in mind before His creative decree of the world, and that man was universally intended to be in eternal union with God, enjoying Him forever (Ephesians 1:4, Genesis 3:15, Isaiah 49:6, John 3:16, and Ezekiel 18:23). In fact, hell wasn't even designed for man but for Satan and the other fallen angels (Matthew 25:41). In a world of free moral agents, however, it may be necessary, and it follows from God's nature and Scriptural revelation, that a world pervaded by the human and natural evils we have experienced and are yet to experience (Mark 13:19) be the world in which this plan is accomplished. Any world in which God creates an abundant amount of human beings, the authenticity of our freedom prohibits even Him from effectuating the logically impossible concurrency of freedom and (truly) forced decision.

You could ask, "Is God not favouring one soul by using another to provide the conditions necessary for their salvation, at the expense of creating the utilized soul with the foreknowledge of their condemned fate?" But there are two problems with this argument. First, you only need to reverse the situation to see how either way one soul would be favoured (as in literally given favour) in the creative decree; either God creates one soul to effectuate in their life by incident the salvation of another, or God rejects creating the soul that would freely respond to Him for the benefit of the one who would not. It would be a much greater atrocity to reject with eternal consequence the one who would freely choose rightly for the sake of the one who would freely reject God, than to create an individual who will be self-condemned by their persistent rejection of God (the supreme good and provisional being) but be incidentally involved in effectuating the free choice of the other to respond to Him. Additionally, the impact of this person's salvation from the life of the non-believer may (and will most probably) have an impact that extends beyond their individual life to lead to the salvation of few or many (Matthew 13:8, Genesis 50:20).


Let me ask you this: what do you make of God deceiving people in Scripture?

" 11 For this reason God will send upon them [k]a deluding influence so that they will believe what is false, 12 in order that they all may be judged who did not believe the truth, but took pleasure in wickedness." 2 Th. 2:11-12 (NASB)

"19 Micaiah said, “Therefore, hear the word of the Lord. I saw the Lord sitting on His throne, and all the host of heaven standing by Him on His right and on His left. 20 The Lord said, ‘Who will entice Ahab to go up and fall at Ramoth-gilead?’ And one said this while another said that. 21 Then a spirit came forward and stood before the Lord and said, ‘I will entice him.’ 22 The Lord said to him, ‘How?’ And he said, ‘I will go out and be a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.’ Then He said, ‘You are to entice him and also prevail. Go and do so.’ 23 Now therefore, behold, the Lord has put a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all these your prophets; and the Lord has proclaimed disaster against you.”" 1 Ki. 22:19-23 (NASB)

This portion of your response was already answered in the address of God's providence, the second part of my response in this post, and even within the Scripture you quoted. God hardens and provides a delusion for those who already resolutely rejected Him. As is stated in the verse from 2 Thessalonians you provided, the deluding influence was given "for this reason", because they already "did not believe the truth, but took pleasure in wickedness." God allows those who have irreconcilably separated from Him to suffer the consequences of their life choice, once He has bore them with patience up to their inevitable end (Romans 9:22, Genesis 15:16), when there are not ten righteous left to spare (Genesis 18:32).
 
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