Tzaousios
Αυγουστινιανικός Χριστιανός
- Dec 4, 2008
 
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I agree with you that feudalism developed over time, however, it was the "system" during the early to medieval times.
I disagree. That it developed over time, and varied widely from region to region, not only in terms of practice, but in its legal foundations, is a very good indication that there was nothing systematic.
Hentenza said:It was also based on socio-economic relationships but, at the level of nobility, it was a necessary system which monarchs used to retain power.
In some regions it may have developed specifically in order to retain power, such as England. However, I would posit that it developed differently and independently out of a need to provide security in a world without the legal and military of the Roman and Byzantine empires. Bastard feudalism in England, castellani in the marches of Iberia, and baillage in France, to name a few, demonstrate the various socio-economic relationships that developed to deal with problems of security. That they allowed lords, kings, and officials to retain power is a corollary of the initial relationship, not the primary reason.
Hentenza said:Which one refutes what I have written so far?
That the old interpretations have been called into question and pushed to the margins comes out especially in White and Reynolds. There is also a lively debate in Past and Present where White and the other prominent scholars hash a lot of this out.
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