You are assuming those 10 resurrections were exceptions to the
Hebrews 9:27 rule of being appointed to die once. They weren't. No scriptures anywhere state that any of these resurrected ones died again. When
Hebrews 9:27 plainly declares that to be an impossibility, then you have to go with that expressed truth.
Those 500 who were witnesses of the risen Christ? Those of that group who had since died were obviously NOT members of the
Matthew 27 resurrected group who had already died once. Those of the 500 who were said to be still living? Possibly could have been some of the
Matthew 27 resurrected saints.
Speaking of Lazarus. John 21:
22Jesus answered, “If I want him to remain until I return, what is that to you? You follow Me!”
23Because of this, the rumor spread among the brothers that this disciple would not die. However,
Jesus did not say that he would not die, but only, “If I want him to remain until I return, what is that to you?”
24This is the disciple who testifies to these things and who has written them down. And we know that his testimony is true.
The title "First-born" is indeed unique to Christ alone. That and the "First-begotten" title as well. But this is different than being the "First-fruits", which was a title that the 144,000 also shared along with Christ. I believe you are confusing the First-fruits BARLEY harvest around Passover with the later WHEAT harvest, which came later at Pentecost. It was the BARLEY harvest which had the sheaf handful of First-fruits waved before the Lord, that was accompanied by the single He-lamb without blemish.
If Christ isn't also the sheaf, then He can't be the first fruits. The sheaf of barley was the first fruits of the barley harvest.
That is one translation, but not necessarily an accurate one. In several translations, including the YLT and the Interlinear,
Acts 26:23 reads with this sense: "...since the Christ was to be a suffering Christ, and by coming back from the dead was then to be
the first to proclaim a message of light both to the Jewish people and to the Gentiles." The emphasis here is not on Christ being the first to rise from the dead in a resurrection, but rather, that after His resurrection, He was the
FIRST to proclaim that good news to both the Jews and then the Gentiles. "To the Jew FIRST, and also to the Greek", as the order of evangelism went out from Jerusalem to the nations. That was the gospel message Christ first entrusted to Mary, to the first individual recorded as meeting Him after His resurrection.
Acts 26:23 Interlinear: that the Christ is to suffer, whether first by a rising from the dead, he is about to proclaim light to the people and to the nations.'
You can see here how the NASB corrected their mistake.
NASB 1995
that the Christ was to suffer, and that by reason of His resurrection from the dead He would be the first to proclaim light both to the Jewish people and to the Gentiles.”
New American Standard Bible
as to whether the Christ was to suffer,
and whether, as first from the resurrection of the dead, He would proclaim light both to the
Jewish people and to the Gentiles.”
Of course it refers to Christ remaining in the flesh in His high priesthood role. His deathless high priesthood (reflective of Melchizedek's) is presented in
direct contrast to those former priests "who were not suffered to continue by reason of death" - meaning their
PHYSICAL death halted their high priesthood function. In the case of Christ, once He was raised from the dead, He gave testimony to John that "I am He that liveth and WAS dead, and behold, I am
alive forevermore..." (
Rev. 1:18). "Death hath no more dominion over Him". For Christ's flesh-and-bones, resurrected body to have been discarded would have been a second death for it, which scripture does not allow.
He was flesh and bones, because the same body shed of it's blood was raised with all the marks of his crucifixion. Job 2:5But stretch out your hand and touch his
bone and his flesh, and he will curse you to your face.” Bone and flesh mean the same as flesh and blood. 2 Samuel 5:1Then all the tribes of Israel came to David at Hebron and said,
“Behold, we are your bone and flesh.
You do notice, don't you, that the word "UNTIL the heavens no longer exist" represents the point at which the dead in Christ are "woken from his sleep"? I think you agree with me that the change to the New Heavens and the New Earth took place back in the AD 70 era. This is when conditions of the Old Heavens and the Old Earth were done away with and no longer existed. Which is also when this "awaking from sleep" out of the grave took place for the believers, according to Job.
Absolutely do notice. See next post.
Why have you truncated the ending of this last
Job 14:14 verse though? The LXX version of this passage is an interesting one. "For if a man should die, shall he live again, having accomplished the days of his life? I will wait TILL I EXIST AGAIN". (or, "till I am MADE AGAIN"). A reconstruction of the original material "made again" into a new condition seems apparent in this text.
Accidentally didn't select the last line. We don't disagree that we will exist again, but what is the nature of our new creation in Christ. Well here it is again: 2 Corinthians 5:
1Now we know that if the earthly tent we live in is
dismantled, we have a building from God,
an eternal house in heaven, not built by human hands.
Parallel usage of the verb. Mark 13:2And Jesus said to him, “Do you see these great buildings? There will not be left here one stone upon another that will not be
thrown down.”
