- Nov 21, 2008
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Thank you.
I'm sure those who believe in this must have a way to deal with what I would see as an inconsistency in their faith.
I was just hoping to hear how that is done? It's something I've never found an answer to and can't figure out on my own.
The most common solution that they use is "all does not mean all in 2Peter 3... whole world does not mean whole world in 1John 2:2" etc.
So, are you a universalist?
No I am not universalist because the Arminian solution for free will and also for accepting that Bible Atonement doctrine of Lev 16 (Day of Atonement where both the sin offering - atoning sacrifice -- AND the work of High Priest are needed to complete the broad scope of atonement) -- fully explains the result of God "not willing that any should perish" 2 Peter 3 and yet "he came to His OWN and His OWN received him not" John 1:11.
Did God fail?
Not at all. He laid out the rules in Romans 2:5-16 for failure vs success saying that "God is not partial" in 2:11.
He wants all to come to repentance - that is His will.
But He still sets up the rules as "whosoever will may come".
Which is why He "draws all mankind unto Himself" John 12:32. But does not force them (though He has the power do so making all of us robots).
He says of that model in Rev 3 "I STAND at the door and knock" not "I burst down the door and force you to accept Me".
in Christ,
Bob
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